Why is the subspace defined by ⟨ω,x⟩=constant linear in Hawking and Ellis?

  • Level: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter Manicwhale
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Hawking
Join the discussion
Registration is free. Start your own thread to ask a follow-up.
2 replies · 2K views
Manicwhale
Messages
10
Reaction score
0
I'm reading Hawking and Ellis, and on p.16 they say that

"The subspace of [tex]T_p[/tex] defined by [tex]\langle \omega,x \rangle[/tex]=(constant) for a given one-form [tex]\omega[/tex], is linear."

But in what sense is this true? For if the constant is non-zero, the 0 of [tex]T_p[/tex] is not in the subspace, nor does it satisfy the usual linearity condition.

By analogy with euclidean space, the points [tex]r \cdot a = d[/tex] form a plane, but not technically a subspace of the original space (since it is "shifted"). Am I missing something?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
No, I don't think that you are missing anything, especially considering the sentence that follows the sentence which you quoted.
 
Thanks!

Turns out that's the least of my difficulties in this book, but it's quite interesting.