nameless123
Dec29-05, 06:39 AM
I am asked in a question to show that the friedman with k<0 equation can be solved by substituing
a= b(1-cos(theta)) and t = c(theta- sin(theta).
a is scale factor,
t is time
b,c are constants
Can anyone outline the general procedure to go about solving this.
I've tried substituting da/dt using the chain rule to obtain da/d(theta)*d(theta)/dt, but this leads to an uneliminated cos terms...
a= b(1-cos(theta)) and t = c(theta- sin(theta).
a is scale factor,
t is time
b,c are constants
Can anyone outline the general procedure to go about solving this.
I've tried substituting da/dt using the chain rule to obtain da/d(theta)*d(theta)/dt, but this leads to an uneliminated cos terms...