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himanshu121
Dec10-03, 09:34 AM
Here is the Problem:
\int_0^\pi\theta^2cosec^2\theta d\theta
I want to do this problem by parts and finding hard to find shortest way to do the problem any shortest way pls
mathman
Dec10-03, 04:45 PM
The straightforward way is probably the easiest. integral of csc2 is -ctn and integral of ctn is log(sin). Integrating log(sin) may take a little work.
PrudensOptimus
Dec10-03, 05:05 PM
Originally posted by himanshu121
Here is the Problem:
\int_0^\pi\theta^2cosec^2\theta d\theta
I want to do this problem by parts and finding hard to find shortest way to do the problem any shortest way pls
cos*sec^2(x) or cosx*sec^2(x)?
master_coda
Dec10-03, 05:24 PM
Originally posted by PrudensOptimus
cos*sec^2(x) or cosx*sec^2(x)?
Isn't it csc(x)?
himanshu121
Dec10-03, 09:49 PM
It is cosecant(x) i.e csc(x)
Integrating log(sin) may take a little work
This is probably the easiest way of doing which i too have tried but it is not the shortest way
There are many ways of doing a problem i am looking for shortest way
Thnxs
master_coda
Dec10-03, 10:39 PM
How about:
\begin{align*}
\int_0^\pi\theta^2\csc^2\theta\;d\theta
&=\int_0^1\theta^2\csc^2\theta\;d\theta+\int_1^\pi\ theta^2\csc^2\theta\;d\theta \\
&>\int_0^1\theta^2\csc^2\theta\;d\theta+\int_1^\pi\c sc^2\theta\;d\theta \\
&=\int_0^1\theta^2\csc^2\theta\;d\theta+\left[-\cot\theta\right]_1^\pi
\end{align*}
Now since \lim\limits_{\theta\rightarrow\pi}(-\cot\theta)=+\infty we know that the rightmost term diverges. Moreover, the left integral (the one from 0 to 1) is clearly positive. Thus the original integral clearly diverges.
master_coda:
the integral of x^2*(cscx)^2 from 1 to pi comes out to be about 4.2
the integral of (cscx)^2 from 1 to pi goes to inifinite. I believe to say the integral of x^2*(cscx)^2 from 1 to pi is greater than the integral of (cscx)^2 from 1 to pi since according to the values it came out as then the formula should be switched around and divergence would not be proved.
himanshu121:
Best way to do it would be to plug it into a calculator or look it up in a table. Otherwise you're probably stuck with integrating log(sin(x)).
jk
himanshu121
Dec11-03, 12:35 AM
Best way to do it would be to plug it into a calculator or look it up in a table
We are not allowed to use calculator in India till we are undergraduate
I found the way but dont know whether it is shortest one or not but definetly i wont stuck at log(sinx)
I = \int_0^\pi\theta^2\csc^2\theta d\theta
I= \int_0^\pi\ (\pi-\theta)^2\csc^2\theta d\theta
this gives
\pi\int_0^\pi\csc^2 \theta d\theta = 2\int_0^\pi\theta\csc^2\theta d\theta
integrating by parts with one part as \theta and other as \theta\csc^2\theta d\theta
i will get \int_0^\pi \cot\theta d\theta = \log(csc\theta-cot\theta)
much easier than integrating log(sinx)
But another problem is how i will put the limits in cotx from 0 to pi in both cases it is infinity and i know there is no break in the function cotx b/w these points
I agree with master_coda...
the integral of x^2*(cscx)^2 from 1 to pi comes out to be about 4.2
Where did you come up with this?! My calculator says 3*10^14 with the caveat of "questionable accuracy" (though, 3*10^14 is a good approximation of infinity. [;)])
Originally posted by Hurkyl
(though, 3*10^14 is a good approximation of infinity. [;)])
Yes, for large values of 3*10^14.
- Warren
master_coda
Dec11-03, 09:45 AM
I'm pretty sure that the integral diverges. My algebra, my calculator and my computer all agree.
Also, if it's any help, \csc\theta-\cot\theta=\frac{1-\cos\theta}{\sin\theta}.
hurkyl. yeah that 4.2 was kinda off huh? just keeping you on your toes i guess:P i entered it in wrong but i redid it and came up with what you got.
i used u=(x^2)csc^2(x) and dv=dx and came up with the first term (x^3*csc^2(x)) going to infinite so i think you might be right coda.
jk
Why dont you try using the tabular method to doing this problem.
Since theta^2 will eventually go to zero if you keep on taking the derivatives, you should do it by tabular method
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