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I'm trying to understand how to interpret multidemensional limits. For example, suppose you have the following:
\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} x\frac{1}{y}
Would this be infinity, 0, or 1?
This is really a more general version of the question I'm working with regarding the behavior of a function that has the property f_a(b) \to\limits_{a \to \infty} 1 and f_a(b) \to\limits_{b \to \infty} \infty in the context that both a and b are going to infinity.
Thanks in advance for any help!
I'm trying to understand how to interpret multidemensional limits. For example, suppose you have the following:
\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} x\frac{1}{y}
Would this be infinity, 0, or 1?
Well,
\lim \limits_{x \to \infty}\left(\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} \frac{x}{y}\right)=\lim \limits_{x \to \infty} 0=0
,but
\lim\limits_{y \to \infty}\left(\lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{y}\right
)
doesn't exist, because \lim\limits_{x \to \infty} \frac{x}{y} doesn't exist.
So that shows that, in general, you can't just interchange limits. They don't commute.
HallsofIvy
Mar6-06, 06:56 AM
I'm trying to understand how to interpret multidemensional limits. For example, suppose you have the following:
\lim\limits_{x \to \infty}\lim\limits_{y \to \infty} x\frac{1}{y}
Would this be infinity, 0, or 1?
None of the above! The limit simply doesn't exist.
This is really a more general version of the question I'm working with regarding the behavior of a function that has the property f_a(b) \to\limits_{a \to \infty} 1 and f_a(b) \to\limits_{b \to \infty} \infty in the context that both a and b are going to infinity.
Thanks in advance for any help!
That means there are points arbitrarily far from the origin such that f is close to 1 and also points such that f is arbitrarily large. There is no one number (not even \infty) that the function gets close to. If there are two different limits by approaching a given point (even "the point at infinity" in two different ways, then the limit itself does not exist.
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