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MathNerd
Jan17-04, 04:57 AM
I’ve been trying to find an analytic solution to the following ODE. I haven’t been successful and have come to the conclusion that an analytic solution probably doesn’t exist. I am not totally sure though and would be appreciative if you guys gave it a look.

a & b are arbitrary constants...


\ddot{f} + b tan(b t) \dot{f} - a^2 cos^2(b t) f = 0


Thanks in advance...

dhris
Jan17-04, 04:35 PM
First, write the tan as sin/cos. Then multiply the equation by cos(bt). Then write the equation in terms of the variable:

\tau = \sin bt

dhris

MathNerd
Jan19-04, 12:39 AM
Originally posted by dhris
First, write the tan as sin/cos. Then multiply the equation by cos(bt). Then write the equation in terms of the variable:

\tau = \sin bt

dhris

Thanks for the hint. I actually found this substitution works best…

\tau = cos(bt)

after making the substitution I solved it via a power series method.

dhris
Jan19-04, 10:55 AM
Originally posted by MathNerd
Thanks for the hint. I actually found this substitution works best…

\tau = cos(bt)

after making the substitution I solved it via a power series method.

But you can solve it exactly if you use the other one!!! [6)]