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vbj194
Jan20-04, 06:38 PM
I was just wondering if anyone knows the rule when taking the derivative of an imaginary number(i). For example: d(ix)/dx=?

Thanks:)

mathman
Jan20-04, 06:51 PM
For the purposes of differential calculus, i is simply another constant.
Therefore d(ix)/dx=idx/dx=i

HallsofIvy
Jan23-04, 11:14 AM
You don't take the derivative of "numbers" in general. You take the derivative of functions. Of course you can treat any number, including complex numbers, as a "constant function". As "mathman" said (and he ought to know!) d(ix)/dx= i just as d(ax)/dx= a for any number a.

If you allow the variable, x, to be a complex number, then it becomes more interesting!

NJunJie
Sep2-09, 02:05 AM
how can i proof if this function has a derivative?

1/[ z*sin(z)*g(z)] from first principle?

z= x + jy.

HallsofIvy
Sep2-09, 08:32 AM
You don't- not with information on g. And, whatever g is, that function is certainly NOT differentiable where it is not defined: any multiple of \pi.

NJunJie
Sep2-09, 10:09 AM
suppose to be

1/[ z*sin(z)*cos (z)]