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Why cant closed pipes produce even numbered harmonics? I have been given an explaination, but it isnt very detailed. I'm doing A2 (or just A level) physics, so an explaination suitable for this level would be greatly appreciated!
Thanks.
himanshu121
Jan24-04, 12:32 PM
What explanation have been given to you so far
Just that the 1st overtone has a frequency of 3 times the fundamental frequency, therefore the second harmonic is missing.
Is that all I need to know? It doesnt seem much of an explaination to give in an exam.
Thanks for your help...
himanshu121
Jan24-04, 12:44 PM
yup it not enough Can u calulate the wavelength in terms of L
Yes, I can calculate the wavelength from L. But why is there no second harmonic in a closed pipe?
himanshu121
Jan24-04, 12:58 PM
Coz for Even harmonics u need a arrangement like this
2f, 4f which is clearly not possible
And u never get L = even integer * Wavelength
himanshu121
Jan24-04, 01:02 PM
http://www.phys.unsw.edu.au/music/pipes.html
Thanks! I will look at that more closely. thanks for the link too.[:)]
himanshu121
Jan24-04, 01:09 PM
basically it is due to the fact that there is pressure antinode and node at closed and open ends
actually, it makes sense now.
thank you so much. i may just get a good grade in my exam now...
[:)]
himanshu121
Jan24-04, 01:19 PM
Goodluck for exams[:))]
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