Laplace transform for solving ODE with variable coefficients

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The discussion centers on the use of the Laplace transform for solving ordinary differential equations (ODEs) with variable coefficients. While theoretically possible, applying the Laplace transform to such equations can be complex and is more straightforward for linear equations with constant coefficients. The process involves integration by parts to derive the Laplace transform of terms like xy"(x), but challenges arise in handling variable coefficients. Clarifications are sought regarding potential typos in the mathematical expressions and the interpretation of terms within the Laplace transform framework. Overall, the conversation highlights the difficulties and nuances of using the Laplace transform in this context.
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Can we use laplace transform to solve an ODE with variable coefficients?

Like this one:

4x y" + 2 y' + y = exp (-x)
 
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Theoretically, yes, if you can find the Laplace transform of f(x)y"(x)!

The Laplace transform of xy"(x) is, by definition,
\int_0^\infty e^{-st}ty"(t)dt
Integrate by parts with u= e^{-st}t so that du= (e^{-st}- st e^{-st})dt, dv= y"(t)dt so that v= y'(t). Then
-\int_0^\infty (e^{-st}- ste^{-st})y'(t)dt
Do that by integration by parts with u= (e^{-st}- ste^{-st} so that du= -2e^{-st}+ s^2te^{-st}, dv= y'(t)dt so that v= y. Then
2y(0)+ \int_0^\infty (2e^{-st}- s^2te^{-st})y(t)dt[/itex]<br /> Write that last as a Laplace transform of y and reduce to an algebraic equation as usual.<br /> <br /> Unfortunately, that is not always easy to do with general variable coefficients. The Laplace transform is basically a method for very mechanically solving linear equations with constant coefficients.
 
HallsofIvy said:
Theoretically, yes, if you can find the Laplace transform of f(x)y"(x)!

The Laplace transform of xy"(x) is, by definition,
\int_0^\infty e^{-st}ty&quot;(t)dt
Integrate by parts with u= e^{-st}t so that du= (e^{-st}- st e^{-st})dt, dv= y"(t)dt so that v= y'(t). Then
-\int_0^\infty (e^{-st}- ste^{-st})y&#039;(t)dt
Do that by integration by parts with u= (e^{-st}- ste^{-st} so that du= -2e^{-st}+ s^2te^{-st}, dv= y'(t)dt so that v= y. Then
2y(0)+ \int_0^\infty (2e^{-st}- s^2te^{-st})y(t)dt[/itex]<br /> Write that last as a Laplace transform of y and reduce to an algebraic equation as usual.<br /> Thanks so much.<br /> I think there is a typo here: du = -2e^{-st}+ s^2te^{-st}<br /> <br /> it should be du = -2 s e^{-st}+ s^2te^{-st}<br /> <br /> and also about the last part why we get 2 y(0). I think it should be zero.<br /> <br /> and also how can I write s^2 t e ^(-st) y as the laplace transform of y? is it equal to the laplace transform of s^2ty?<br /> <br /> Sorry if I ask too many questions.
 
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Question: A clock's minute hand has length 4 and its hour hand has length 3. What is the distance between the tips at the moment when it is increasing most rapidly?(Putnam Exam Question) Answer: Making assumption that both the hands moves at constant angular velocities, the answer is ## \sqrt{7} .## But don't you think this assumption is somewhat doubtful and wrong?

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