(For every set S and every metric d on S)
The answer is d^(1/2)
How do you prove this mathematically?
For d to be a metric you need to show that:
d(a,b) = 0 \iff a=b
(which is easy in this case)
d(a,b) \geq 0
(also easy)
d(a,c) \leq d(a,b)+d(b,c)
Which is the only one that really needs any looking into in this case.
The does not necessarily hold for d'=d^2 since if you have d(a,b)=1 and d(b,c)=1 and d(a,b)=2, then the triangle inequality does not hold for d'.
To prove that the triangle inequality holds for d'=d^{\frac{1}{2}}, start with the triangle inequality for d, complete the square on the RHS, and take the square root of both sides.
that makes perfect sense.
thanks
vBulletin® v3.7.6, Copyright ©2000-2009, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.