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Matt Jacques
Mar31-04, 05:00 PM
Although on the whole my Boyce & DiPrima book is fairly good in of itself and compared with others, but of-coarse some areas are lacking.

vt'' - 3v' = 0

I suppose I integrate twice, but then what?

matt grime
Mar31-04, 05:05 PM
vt''-3v'? You might want to check that, v and t are both functions of some paramater?

Matt Jacques
Mar31-04, 05:13 PM
More specifically, v(t)*t'' - 3v(t) = 0

I'd go insane if I kept that (t) in there while differentiating and combining. :P

matt grime
Mar31-04, 05:35 PM
And that factorizes as:

v(t)*(t''-3)=0

not sure that's right either as now the second v is not primed.

Matt Jacques
Mar31-04, 05:42 PM
v''(t)*t - 3v'(t) = 0

Sorry, this is it now.

matt grime
Mar31-04, 05:50 PM
Well, one solution is v(t)=t^3, don't you have to use this to get the other solution?


Edit, of course it isn't. There's the constant solution, duh, and that gives the answer in the next post.

Max0526
Apr2-04, 12:51 AM
Hi;
The general solution is:
v(t)=C_1t^4+C_2
Good luck,
Max.

bowzerman
Feb12-08, 11:41 PM
add the 3v' to the other side getting:
vt''=3v'
divide v to the other side and then integrate with respect to t and v, based on the side of the equation, being sure to keep the integration constants in.

HallsofIvy
Feb13-08, 08:36 AM
add the 3v' to the other side getting:
vt''=3v'
divide v to the other side and then integrate with respect to t and v, based on the side of the equation, being sure to keep the integration constants in.
No, you cannot treat second derivatives like that. If you really had a single equation in two dependent variables, you will need another equation to get an explicite solutions just as you cannot solve one numeric equation in two variables.

The problem is, after editing, tv"j- 3v'= 0.
Matt Jacques, since you explicitely refer to "reduction of order", I think you mean this: set u= v' so that u'= v" and you have the first order equation tu'- 3u= 0. Now, you can do exactly what bowzerman suggested, since this is now a first order equation.
t du/dt= 3u so du/u= 3t dt. ln|u|= (3/2)t2+ C and then
u= C_1 e^{(3/2)t^2[itex].
Since u= dv/dt, we have
[tex]dv= C_1 e^{3/2}t^2 dt
and only have to integerate again. I'll leave that to you!

HallsofIvy
Feb13-08, 08:37 AM
add the 3v' to the other side getting:
vt''=3v'
divide v to the other side and then integrate with respect to t and v, based on the side of the equation, being sure to keep the integration constants in.
No, you cannot treat second derivatives like that. If you really had a single equation in two dependent variables, you will need another equation to get an explicite solutions just as you cannot solve one numeric equation in two variables.

The problem is, after editing, tv"- 3v'= 0.
Matt Jacques, since you explicitely refer to "reduction of order", I think you mean this: set u= v' so that u'= v" and you have the first order equation tu'- 3u= 0. Now, you can do exactly what bowzerman suggested, since this is now a first order equation.
t du/dt= 3u so du/u= 3t dt. ln|u|= (3/2)t2+ C and then
u= C_1 e^{(3/2)t^2[tex].
Since u= dv/dt, we have
[tex]dv= C_1 e^{3/2}t^2 dt
and only have to integerate again. I'll leave that to you!

bowzerman
Feb14-08, 07:34 PM
yeah, sorry, I was just wrote that one too quick. Forgot to clarify.

bowzerman
Feb14-08, 07:39 PM
oh, and shouldn't that be:
t du/dt = 3u
1/u du = 3/t ?
ln(u)=3ln(t) +C
u= c*t^3

, then sub, integrate, and then plug in?