Positronized
Sep25-07, 04:05 AM
I was playing around with complex exponentials and came to this result:
$\begin{eqnarray*}
e^{\frac{2\pi i}{5}}&=&e^\left(\frac{2}{5}\right)\left(\pi i\right)\\
&=&\left(e^{\pi i}\right)^{\frac{2}{5}}\\
&=&\left(-1\right)^{\frac{2}{5}}\\
&=&1\end{eqnarray*}$
But obviously e^{\frac{2\pi i}{5}}=\mathrm{cos}\frac{2\pi}{5}+i \mathrm{sin}\frac{2\pi}{5}\approx 0.309+0.951i\neq 1
So after some research I found that the exponential law a^{mn}=\left(a^{m}\right)^{n} is only true when a,m,n\in\mathbb{R} and not otherwise.
My question now is WHY does the index law fail for imaginary base/exponents?
Thanks!
*PS how can I get rid of that (0) appearing after the eqnarray in my $\LaTeX$ code above?? :P
$\begin{eqnarray*}
e^{\frac{2\pi i}{5}}&=&e^\left(\frac{2}{5}\right)\left(\pi i\right)\\
&=&\left(e^{\pi i}\right)^{\frac{2}{5}}\\
&=&\left(-1\right)^{\frac{2}{5}}\\
&=&1\end{eqnarray*}$
But obviously e^{\frac{2\pi i}{5}}=\mathrm{cos}\frac{2\pi}{5}+i \mathrm{sin}\frac{2\pi}{5}\approx 0.309+0.951i\neq 1
So after some research I found that the exponential law a^{mn}=\left(a^{m}\right)^{n} is only true when a,m,n\in\mathbb{R} and not otherwise.
My question now is WHY does the index law fail for imaginary base/exponents?
Thanks!
*PS how can I get rid of that (0) appearing after the eqnarray in my $\LaTeX$ code above?? :P