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Someone1987
Aug29-08, 11:24 PM
Is there a general way of proving that the scalar product
xuxu = (x0)2 - (x1)2 - (x2)2 - (x3)2
is invariant under a Lorentz transformation that applies no matter the explicit form of the transformation.

jdstokes
Aug30-08, 12:12 AM
First derive the form of a Lorentz transform in an arbitrary direction.
Then check that the scalar product is invariant.

Fredrik
Aug30-08, 01:04 AM
You could take the requirement that this "scalar product" is invariant (and the requirement that a Lorentz transformation is a linear transformation) as the definition of a Lorentz transformation. If you do, you don't have to prove that it's invariant.

An alternative is to define a (homogeneous) Lorentz transformation as a linear map x\mapsto\Lambda x:\mathbb R^4\rightarrow\mathbb R^4 such that \Lambda^T\eta\Lambda=\eta (where ^T is the transpose of the 4x4 matrix). The "scalar product" <x,y> of x and y is then defined by \langle x,y\rangle=x^T\eta y. If you know anything about matrices you should find it easy to prove that \langle\Lambda x,\Lambda y\rangle=\langle x,y\rangle when \Lambda is a Lorentz transformation.