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mhill
Oct11-08, 05:56 AM
if we knew how to solve f(x)= 0 mod (p^{l-1}) (1)

could we solve then f(x)= 0 mod (p^{l}) for integer 'l'

the idea is, if it were easy to solve f(x)= 0 mod (p) then we could easily find a solution to (1) but i do not know how to do it.

CRGreathouse
Oct13-08, 04:32 PM
It's not even clear that
f(x)\equiv0\pmod{p^l}
has solutions, let alone that we can easily find them.

Hurkyl
Oct13-08, 04:56 PM
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hensel_Lifting

But don't just immediately click on that link! Think about the problem first. Suppose you knew that f(x) had exactly one root modulo p. (Let's say a is that root) Then isn't there a very narrow range of possibilities for a root of f(x) modulo p^2?