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sutupidmath
Nov20-08, 12:32 AM
Hi all,

I am having trouble proving the following proposition:

\bar a is a generator of the additive group Z_m if and only if gcm(m,a)=1.

Well, first let's start with what i know.

I know how to prove the following:

Let G=[a] be a cyclic group of order q. Show that a^s is a generator of G, iff gcd(s,q)=1.

proof:
(<=) Suppose that gcd(s,q)=1, then there exist some integers x,y such that

1=sx+qy, so

a^1=a^{sx}a^{qy}=(a^s)^x(a^q)^y=(a^s)^xe^y=(a^s)^x so since there exists an integer x, such that (a^s)^x=a then G=[a^s]

(=>) Now, suppose that a^s is a generator of G. THen there should exist some integer k such that

(a^s)^k=a=>a^{sk}=a=>a^{sk-1}=e now from a theorem we know that

q|(sk-1)=> there exists some integer n such that sk-1=mq=>1=sk+(-m)q=>gcd(s,q)=1.


Now i tried to translate this for the additive groups. And here is where the problems start to come in play, for only to get worse when i go to Z_m.

So, i am trying to prove the following:

Let G be an additive group generated by a, where o(G)=q. Prove that s*a is a generator of G iff gcd(s,q)=1.
Proof:
(<=) Suppose that gcd(s,q)=1. Now, as before, there exist x,y integers, such that

1=sx+qy

now: 1*a=(sx+qy)a=(sx)a+(qy)a= x(sa)+y(qa).---(@)
(Now, here i believe that if we Translate the Lagranges theorem into terms of an additive group it would be sth like this, right: "Let G be a finite group with order r. Then the order of each subgroup H in G, and the order of each element a of G is an integral divisor or r. Also r*g=0 for every el. g in G."Basically i am concerned whether the last part would be correct that is: from g^r =e into r*g=e=0. Since in the book we are using we are denoting with 0 the identity in an additive group.)

Now, if this is true, then we get from (@) a=x(sa). Now since there is an integer x, such that this holds, i assume we can conclude that G=[sa], that is sa generates the group G.

(=>) now lets suppose that sa is a generator for the group G. Then there exists some integer k such that k(sa)=a=> k(sa)-a=0 => (ks-1)a=0. Now, since the order of a is q. it follows that

q|(ks-1)=> ks-1=mq =>1=ks +(-m)q , so it follows that gcd(s,q)=1.

Well, let me give a crack to my main issue now:

\bar a is a generator of the additive group Z_m if and only if gcm(m,a)=1.
Proof: again lets suppose that gcd(a,m)=1. so there are integers x, y such that

1=ax+my.

Now, i know that \bar a = a+[m] so let [\bar a]=\{k\bar a:k\in Z\}=\{ka+k(rm):r,k\in Z\} in particular let u\in [\bar a] so, u=ak+k(rm)

So, this would mean that any linear combination of a and m is also in a+[m]. Now since

1=ax+my, i am saying that 1\in a+[m]=\bar a

ok let's stop here, cuz, i lost my stream of thought!

Any hints, ideas, would be greatly appreciated.

sutupidmath
Nov20-08, 12:55 AM
Well, i know the previous post is way too long, so if you don't have time to have a look at it, the whole thing is about the following:

Prove that
\bar a is a generator of the additive group Z_m if and only if gcm(m,a)=1.

sutupidmath
Nov20-08, 07:51 PM
Nevermind, i figuret it out. Thnx though!