Absolute Converge test for 1/[n*ln(n)]

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series \(\sum_{n = 2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n \ln(n)}\). Participants are exploring whether the series converges absolutely, conditionally, or diverges, focusing on various convergence tests.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts the ratio test but is unsure about the limit's implications. Some participants question the validity of the ratio test's conclusion, noting that the limit equals 1, which renders the test inconclusive. Others suggest using the limit comparison test but express uncertainty about the appropriate comparison series. There are also inquiries about the conditions for testing for conditional convergence, particularly regarding non-alternating series.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing various methods to analyze the series. Some have offered alternative tests, like the integral test, while others are seeking clarification on convergence concepts. There is no explicit consensus on the best approach yet, but several lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the implications of the ratio test and the conditions under which different convergence tests should be applied. There is a noted confusion regarding the distinction between absolute and conditional convergence, particularly in the context of non-alternating series.

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Homework Statement



<br /> \sum_{n = 2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n*ln(n)}<br />

I have to find whether the series absolute converge, conditionally converge or diverge?2. The attempt at a solution

I used the ratio test.

so, lim(n to infinity) [n*ln(n)]/[(n+1)*ln(n+1)]

since ln (n+1) will be greater than ln (n) and n+1 will be greater than n, the whole denominator will be greater than the numerator so when i take the limit, the value must be less than 1.

but i think i have cancel n or ln(n) to show that the whole limit is really less than 1 to converge.

help!

i m sorry . i dun know how to use the latex code..
 
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No, the limit is 1 even though each \frac{n \ln n}{(n + 1) \ln (n + 1)} &lt; 1, because \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{n}{n + 1} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{1 + \frac{1}{n}} = 1 and \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\ln n}{\ln (n + 1)} = 1 by l'hopital's rule.

Since the limit is 1, the ratio test is inconclusive. Do you have any other methods to use?
 
i think i can use "limit comparison test" but i m not sure what i should use for bn.

if i use either 1/n or 1/ln(n) for bn, the limit goes to zero and since bn diverge, i can't decide on an(original term).

one more questions abt absolute convergence test. assuming the series is given, not alternative series, if i use one of the test n find out , it is divergent. it is divergent. rt?
i am confused with when i have to test for conditional convergence. is it only for alternate series.
all the examples in the textbook which turn out to be conditional convergence are alternate series..

sorry for asking too many questions in one post.
 
Use an integral test:
\int 1 / (n*ln|n|)
A certain substitution should eventually lead to an antiderivative of:
ln(ln(n))

I'll leave the rest to you (remember to look at what lim n->inf: ln(ln(n)) does)
 

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