Redukt
Dec18-08, 07:17 AM
My apologies in advance for asking what (to me) looks like an extremely stupid question, but I just can't figure it out.
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data:
Where is this an inner product:
\int_{a}^{b}f(x)g(x) dx
a) on C[a,b]?
b) on C(R)?
The answer is that it is an inner product on a), but not on b) - apparently on b) the axiom of positivity fails. I do not understand how this is possible, since all functions that are C(R) are also C[a,b] - or have I just always misunderstood this notation? Does not C(R) mean "functions continuous on all of R"?
2. Relevant equations
This is what the answer key says: It fails on b) because \exists f \ne 0 : \Vert f \Vert^2 = 0
3. The attempt at a solution:
has mainly consisted of trying (unsuccessfully) to work backwards towards a counterexample. I don't know how to do this in any other, more general way, since the whole idea seems illogical to me. Please enlighten me, somebody?
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data:
Where is this an inner product:
\int_{a}^{b}f(x)g(x) dx
a) on C[a,b]?
b) on C(R)?
The answer is that it is an inner product on a), but not on b) - apparently on b) the axiom of positivity fails. I do not understand how this is possible, since all functions that are C(R) are also C[a,b] - or have I just always misunderstood this notation? Does not C(R) mean "functions continuous on all of R"?
2. Relevant equations
This is what the answer key says: It fails on b) because \exists f \ne 0 : \Vert f \Vert^2 = 0
3. The attempt at a solution:
has mainly consisted of trying (unsuccessfully) to work backwards towards a counterexample. I don't know how to do this in any other, more general way, since the whole idea seems illogical to me. Please enlighten me, somebody?