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zetafunction
Jun7-09, 05:00 AM
Could someone provide a reference to calculate this kind of integrals ? for example

\int_{0}^{2}dx \frac{cos(x)}{x-1}

or in 3-D \iiint_{D}dx \frac{x-y+z^{2})}{x+y+z}

Where 'D' is the cube [-1,1]x[-1,1]x[-1,1]=D

as you can see there is a singularity at x=1 or whenever x+y+z=0 , perhaps the other integral is easier to define if we use polar coordinates , so the singularities appear when r=0

Cyosis
Jun7-09, 05:16 AM
According to mathematica the integral does not converge.

tiny-tim
Jun7-09, 05:41 AM
Yes, ∫cosx/(x-1) dx near x = 1 is (cos1)∫dx/(x-1) = (cos1)[log(x-1)], which obviously is infinite. :smile:

zetafunction
Jun7-09, 05:47 AM
they exists in an especial sense known as hadamard integral

for the case 1-D you integrate and simply ignore the terms giving you an infinite Answer this is why is called 'finite part'

some more info http://books.google.es/books?id=E5a17DrqHeUC&pg=PA509&lpg=PA509&dq=Hadamard+finite+part+integral&source=bl&ots=OHUWW6C9in&sig=V4HbpMVSXtAo2FA6ywWsNP6LkwQ&hl=es&ei=6_0eSoOSHtLL_Aa3gJ3KBA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=6#PPA511,M1

for a brief description of what this integral is.

Gib Z
Jun7-09, 07:53 AM
Are you sure you didn't mean something else? Another variable is in the integral of the usual definition: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hadamard_finite_part_integral .

zetafunction
Jun7-09, 09:49 AM
yes that is the definition , but in general you drop the divergent term dvided by epsilon and take only the finite value , that is for 1-D for 3-D or similar i do not know what can be done, or if the integral is divergent at infinity for example

\int_{0}^{\infty}dxx^{3}cos(x)