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brandy
Nov2-09, 07:31 AM
would in = an infinite amount of real possibilites if n is complex. considering that 1+0i is still a complex number, or is that wrong?

pbandjay
Nov2-09, 08:17 AM
For one example, ii is real. In fact,

(it)^{it}=e^{-t\pi/2}[\cos(t\ln t) + i\sin(t\ln t)]

is real for t ln(t) = n pi, n integer.

lurflurf
Nov4-09, 03:02 AM
i^n=exp(n log(i))
For the principle branch take log(i)=i*pi/2
i^n=exp(i*n*pi/2)
when will that be real?

brandy
Nov4-09, 05:33 AM
i just asked if it would have an infinite amount of possibilites, obviously i have already thought about this and already know some examples of how it will be real. its a yes or no + justification response.

im using De Moirve's theorm and i can already prove that i^i is real. and hence i^ai is real even if its complex and if n=ai+c it will be real if c is an even number or o.

the other part of my question was, can i acurately say that a+0i is a complex number???

slider142
Nov4-09, 06:26 AM
i just asked if it would have an infinite amount of possibilites, obviously i have already thought about this and already know some examples of how it will be real. its a yes or no + justification response.

im using De Moirve's theorm and i can already prove that i^i is real. and hence i^ai is real even if its complex and if n=ai+c it will be real if c is an even number or o.

the other part of my question was, can i acurately say that a+0i is a complex number???

Yes. The real numbers are a subset of the complex numbers.