when calculating the probability using P(x)=[tex]\varphi[/tex](x)dx, do I need to:

[grooveactiva]

. . . normalize the wave function first? So I will really be finding the probability of
\varphi/(normalization constant)?

[Feldoh]

Well when we normalize a wave function we are correcting it by a constant such that it physically makes sense.

I mean it's physically nonsense to talk about a wave function that isn't normalized.

But at the same time the normalization is contained in the wave function itself so you wont have \frac{\psi}{const} you just have \psi which when we integrate the square of the wave function over all space equals 1.