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yungman
Jan27-10, 05:52 PM
I have problem understand in one step of deriving the Legendre polymonial formula. We start with:

P_n (x)=\frac{1}{2^n } \sum ^M_{m=0} (-1)^m \frac{2n-2m)}{m!(n-m)(n-2m)}x^n-2m

Where M=n/2 for n=even and M=(n-1)/2 for n=odd.


For 0<=m<=M

\Rightarrow \frac{d^n}{dx^n}x^2n-2m = \frac{2n-2m)}{m!(n-m)(n-2m)}x^n-2m


For M<m<=n

\Rightarrow \frac{d^n}{dx^n}x^2n-2m = 0



P_n (x)=\frac{1}{2^n n!} \sum ^M_{m=0} (-1)^m \frac{n!)}{m!(n-m)}\frac{d^n}{dx^n}x^2n-2m (1)


\Rightarrow P_n (x)=\frac{1}{2^n n!}\frac{d^n}{dx^n} \sum ^n_{m=0} (-1)^m \frac{n!)}{m!(n-m)}(x^2)^{n-m} (2)


Notice the \sum^M_{m=0} change to \sum^n_{m=0} from (1) to (2). Can anyone explain this to me?

tiny-tim
Jan28-10, 07:08 AM
Hi yungman! :smile:

(in LaTeX, ^ or _ has to be followed by {} unless there's only one character :wink:)

It' s because of the line before (1) …

∑m=M+1n {…blah…} dn/dxn x2n-2m = 0. :smile:

yungman
Jan29-10, 07:08 PM
Hi yungman! :smile:

(in LaTeX, ^ or _ has to be followed by {} unless there's only one character :wink:)

It' s because of the line before (1) …

∑m=M+1n {…blah…} dn/dxn x2n-2m = 0. :smile:

Thanks.