View Full Version : A very difficult problem
DarkNess_wtc
Feb4-10, 04:53 AM
i have thought about that for serval days= =
please help
http://www.physicsforums.com/attachment.php?attachmentid=23523&stc=1&d=1265280816
It is 35.565955205923352
But I can't tell you about \sum_{2}^{n} \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}.
DarkNess_wtc
Feb4-10, 05:25 AM
how about steps?
Just entered into the calculator.
DarkNess_wtc
Feb4-10, 07:36 AM
...
i want solving it without cal
Prathyush
Feb4-10, 08:40 AM
In what form do u want the answer.
you can approximate the sum by integral 1/sqrt(n) between 1 and 19.
notice that 19^2 is 361
that is 2(19-1) = 36
The answer is close enough
DarkNess_wtc
Feb4-10, 09:25 AM
>that is 2(19-1) = 36
HOW come to this step?
Prathyush
Feb4-10, 09:52 AM
\sum_{1}^{361} \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}
is approximately equal to
\int_{1}^{361} \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}. =2(\sqrt{a}-\sqrt{b})
=2(\sqrt{361}-\sqrt{1})
=36
Why do you think there is any answer better than 35.565955205923352 ??
elibj123
Feb4-10, 11:15 AM
I don't think there's an analytical solution, but you can approximate it.
First approximation is integral,
Next approximations would involve some play with operators.
Let's define D\equiv \frac{d}{dx} as the derivative operator, and observe the operator \sigma \equiv e^{D}
Functions of operators are defined via their Taylor Series, so:
e^{D} f=\sum^{\infty}_{k=0}\frac{D^{k}f(x)}{k!}=\sum^{\i nfty}_{k=0}\frac{1}{k!}\frac{d^{k}f(x)}{dx^{k}}(x+ 1-x)^k=f(x+1)
(Notice that the last sum is the Taylor Series of f(z) around the point x)
So \sigma is some sort of a delay\shift operator.
Let's now observe the operator S defined as
F(n)=Sf=\sum^{n}_{k=1}f(k)
You can notice that \sigma Sf=\sum^{n+1}_{k=1}f(k)
So \sigma S f-Sf=f(n+1)=\sigma f
And conclude S(\sigma -1)=\sigma
And if you recall the definition of \sigma then:
S=(1-\sigma^{-1})^{-1}=\frac{1}{1-e^{-D}}
S(D-\frac{D^{2}}{2}+\frac{D^{3}}{6}-...)=1
Knowing the expansion of the exponential function, you can approximate the Taylor expansion of S. The interesting fact is that S has a simple pole at "D=0", which means that in the expansion of S you will have a negative power of D:
S=D^{-1}+...
Which means that integration (the inverse of D) is the first approximation to discrete summation.
A better approximation would be
S=D^{-1}+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}D
Operate S on \frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}
And get:
\sum^{n}_{k=2}\frac{1}{\sqrt{k}}=\int^{n}_{k=2}\fr ac{dk}{\sqrt{k}}+\frac{1}{2\sqrt{n}}-\frac{1}{8n\sqrt{n}}
And after some tiresome calculation for n=361
=35.1977
Which I think is a pretty good approximation, if only to show that the operator thing is correct.
Taking further derivatives would make a better approximation.
aracharya
Feb6-10, 12:58 PM
You can also use the first 5 terms of the Euler-Maclaurin formula (http://planetmath.org/encyclopedia/EulerMaclaurinSummationFormula.html) (i.e. the integral, the terms involving the first derivative, and the terms involving the second derivative) to approximate the sum as follows :
S_n = \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{\sqrt{i}}\approx 2\sqrt{n} +\frac{1}{2\sqrt{n}} - \frac{1}{24n\sqrt{n}} -
\frac{35}{24}
The result is then :
S_{361} \approx 36.56797638
The error relative to the true result is about 0.0055%.
aracharya
Feb6-10, 02:06 PM
As stated in Bernoulli number (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bernoulli_numbers) if the first Bernoulli number is chosen according to the convention B_1 = -1/2 then the Euler–MacLaurin formula is :
\sum\limits_{a\leq k<b}f(k)=\int_a^b f(x)\,dx \ + \sum\limits_{k=1}^m \frac{B_k}{k!}\left(f^{(k-1)}(b)-f^{(k-1)}(a)\right)+R(f,m).
whereas if we choose the convention B_1 = 1/2, then the Euler–MacLaurin formula is :
\sum\limits_{a<k\leq b} f(k)=\int_a^b f(x)\,dx + \sum\limits_{k=1}^m \frac{B_k}{k!} \left(f^{(k-1)}(b)-f^{(k-1)}(a)\right)+R(f,m). \
DarkNess_wtc
Feb6-10, 10:01 PM
i can't understand
S_n = \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{\sqrt{i}}\approx 2\sqrt{n} +\frac{1}{2\sqrt{n}} - \frac{1}{24n\sqrt{n}} -
\frac{35}{24}
can you explain it please?
aracharya
Feb7-10, 05:24 AM
All I am doing is substituting f(n) = 1/\sqrt{n} into the Euler-Maclaurin formula. This time from Mathworld (since the formula is expanded in full), the Euler-Maclaurin (http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Euler-MaclaurinIntegrationFormulas.html) formula can be written as :
\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}f(k)=\int_0^n f(k) dk-1/2[f(n)-f(0)]+1/(12)[f^{'}(n)-f^{'}(0)]-1/(720)[f^{'''}(n)-f^{'''}(0)]+1/(30240)[f^{(5)}(n)-f^{(5)}(0)]-1/(1209600)[f^{(7)}(n)-f^{(7)}(0)]+...
Note that i have written 1/2[f(n)-f(0)] instead of 1/2[f(n)+f(0)]. The former is consistent with wikipedia Bernouilli numbers (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bernoulli_number).
Then I make the approximation :
\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}f(k)\approx \int_0^n f(k)dk-1/2[f(n)-f(0)]+1/(12)[f^{'}(n)-f^{'}(0)]
Then I substitute f(k) = 1/\sqrt{k}, and then add f(n) to the result since the summation in the formula is up to (n-1) where as we want it up to n
All you have to do is to subsitute f(k) = 1/\sqrt{k} into the formula above, and verify my result.
aracharya
Feb7-10, 05:56 AM
Note that the operator method of elibj123 is one way of deriving the Euler-Maclaurin formula, as is shown in Chapter 25 of Quantum Calculus by Victor Kac and Pokman Cheung (http://books.google.co.uk/books?id=mK8HXHSTbB0C&dq=Quantum+Calculus+by+Victor+Kac+and+Pokman+Cheun g&printsec=frontcover&source=bn&hl=en&ei=96luS9LML47KjAf54didCA&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=4&ved=0CBUQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=&f=false). You can also find some basic material on it at "Art of approximation in science and engineering by Sanjoy Mahajan" (http://web.mit.edu/6.055/old/S2009/notes/operators.pdf)
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