View Full Version : Logic: demonstration
FrostScYthe
Aug23-04, 04:31 PM
How do you prove this is a function?
g: P(A) > P(A)
g(X) = X^-1
X^-1 means inverse of X
anyway, does anyone know how to do a formal demonstration for this?
HallsofIvy
Aug23-04, 05:06 PM
You need to be a bit clearer. If this were NOT
HallsofIvy
Aug23-04, 05:07 PM
You need to be a bit clearer. If this were NOT a "logic" question, I would assume you meant that g is a relation on the Power set of A. However, that would still leave open the question of what is meant by "inverse of X"- a set does not have an inverse.
FrostScYthe
Aug24-04, 06:01 PM
No, I do MEAN PROVE THAT IT IS A FUNCTION. somehow you first have to prove that for the domain there is a solution for every element.. and that there is Unity in the solutions for every element that x contains ;/
Now what I mean that X^c... itīs hard to put the frigginī notation on that thing but itīs defined something like this
if xRy
then xR^cy means that yRx
thatīs all :wink:
(x,y) belongs R
then (x,y) belongs R^-1 means (y,x) belongs R
HallsofIvy
Aug26-04, 07:39 AM
You still haven't told us:
What A is.
What P(A) means.
What X is!
FrostScYthe
Aug27-04, 09:00 AM
but here we go anyway, I think I'm getting it solved from another source, so when I'll get it, I'll post it =d
P(A) - means Parts of set A
so when I say P(A) -> P(A) I simply mean that the function goes from a domain of P(A) to a range of P(A)
g(x) = X^c
That's the function that we're talking about. I believe I explained that one... X is a set by the way
What you have to prove????
1. That under the function X^c any entry and exit belongs to P(A)
2. That there's Unicity that is .....
for all x1 x2(g(x1) != g(x2) -> x1 != x2)
vBulletin® v3.8.7, Copyright ©2000-2012, vBulletin Solutions, Inc.