View Full Version : Product of expectation values
daudaudaudau
Oct31-10, 04:43 AM
In quantum mechanics, when is this true
\langle\psi|AB|\psi\rangle=\langle\psi | A|\psi\rangle\langle\psi |B|\psi\rangle
? In probability theory, when the two variables are independent, the mean value of the product is the product of the mean values. What about QM?
daudaudaudau
Oct31-10, 09:22 AM
It is true if |\psi\rangle is a normalized eigenstate of both A and B because then
\langle \psi|AB| \psi\rangle=a_\psi b_\psi
...
saaskis
Oct31-10, 02:19 PM
The equation
\langle \psi|AB|\psi\rangle = \langle \psi|A|\psi\rangle \langle \psi|B|\psi\rangle \ \forall \psi
also leads to [A,B]=0. But assuming that [A,B]=0 and that both are usual Hermitian observables does not seem to imply the above equation for general states, even though any state can be expanded as a linear combination of common eigenstates: this would require
\sum_i a_ib_i|c_i|^2 = \sum_{i,j} a_i b_j |c_i|^2 |c_j|^2
for
|\psi\rangle = \sum_i c_i |\psi_i \rangle.
So I don't have an answer to your question but I wrote anyway :) But
\langle AB \rangle = \langle A \rangle \langle B \rangle
of course means that in the particular configuration, the operators are uncorrelated and there is e.g. no Heisenberg uncertainty in measuring both observables "simultaneously".
daudaudaudau
Oct31-10, 02:57 PM
Yeah, it is not enough for the operators to commute, because A commutes with A, but
\langle\psi|A^2|\psi\rangle\neq\langle\psi | A|\psi\rangle\langle\psi |A|\psi\rangle
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