orentago
Nov10-10, 06:09 PM
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
Given the Lagrangian density
L=-{1 \over 2}[\partial_\alpha\phi_\beta(x)][\partial^\alpha\phi^\beta(x)]+{1\over 2}[\partial_\alpha\phi^\alpha(x)][\partial_\beta\phi^\beta(x)]+{\mu^2\over 2}\phi_\alpha(x)\phi^\alpha(x)
for the real vector field \phi^\alpha(x) with field equations:
[g_{\alpha\beta}(\square+\mu^2)-\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta]\phi^\beta(x)=0
Show that the field \phi^\alpha(x) satisfies the Lorentz condition:
\partial_\alpha\phi^\alpha(x)=0
2. Relevant equations
See above.
3. The attempt at a solution
[g_{\alpha\beta}(\square+\mu^2)-\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta]\phi^\beta(x)=0
\Rightarrow\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta\phi^\beta (x)=g_{\alpha\beta}(\square+\mu^2)\phi^\beta(x)
\Rightarrow\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta\phi^\beta (x)=g_{\alpha\beta}(\partial^\beta\partial_\beta+\ mu^2)\phi^\beta(x)
\Rightarrow\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta\phi^\beta (x)=\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta\phi^\beta(x)+\mu ^2g_{\alpha\beta}\phi^\beta(x)
\Rightarrow\mu^2g_{\alpha\beta}\phi^\beta(x)=0
\Rightarrow\mu^2\phi^\beta(x)=0
\Rightarrow\mu^2\partial_\alpha\phi^\alpha(x)=0
I think I've done it, but I don't know if my method is correct. Would anyone be able to validate or refute this?
Given the Lagrangian density
L=-{1 \over 2}[\partial_\alpha\phi_\beta(x)][\partial^\alpha\phi^\beta(x)]+{1\over 2}[\partial_\alpha\phi^\alpha(x)][\partial_\beta\phi^\beta(x)]+{\mu^2\over 2}\phi_\alpha(x)\phi^\alpha(x)
for the real vector field \phi^\alpha(x) with field equations:
[g_{\alpha\beta}(\square+\mu^2)-\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta]\phi^\beta(x)=0
Show that the field \phi^\alpha(x) satisfies the Lorentz condition:
\partial_\alpha\phi^\alpha(x)=0
2. Relevant equations
See above.
3. The attempt at a solution
[g_{\alpha\beta}(\square+\mu^2)-\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta]\phi^\beta(x)=0
\Rightarrow\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta\phi^\beta (x)=g_{\alpha\beta}(\square+\mu^2)\phi^\beta(x)
\Rightarrow\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta\phi^\beta (x)=g_{\alpha\beta}(\partial^\beta\partial_\beta+\ mu^2)\phi^\beta(x)
\Rightarrow\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta\phi^\beta (x)=\partial_\alpha\partial_\beta\phi^\beta(x)+\mu ^2g_{\alpha\beta}\phi^\beta(x)
\Rightarrow\mu^2g_{\alpha\beta}\phi^\beta(x)=0
\Rightarrow\mu^2\phi^\beta(x)=0
\Rightarrow\mu^2\partial_\alpha\phi^\alpha(x)=0
I think I've done it, but I don't know if my method is correct. Would anyone be able to validate or refute this?