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GoldNow
Nov15-10, 02:26 PM
From the equation of time dilation we can deduce a consequence that surprise me . If we know that in our frame system is future and in other frame system is past , and from pointview of the other frame system must be another frame system that is past from our pointview and so on from the equation t=t0\times\gamma where \gamma is einsteinian invariant we can get the following consequence : In our universe must be a frame system that is the infinite past and future. What do you think ? What is wrong and right on this idea ?

tiny-tim
Nov15-10, 03:41 PM
Hi GoldNow! :smile:

I'm finding it difficult to understand what you're saying, but if you mean that one frame can be in the past or future of another frame, that's not correct.

A frame covers the whole of space and time.

Two different frames cover the whole of space and time differently, like two different coordinate grids.

DaleSpam
Nov15-10, 03:59 PM
Two different frames cover the whole of space and time differently, like two different coordinate grids.Yes, but in flat spacetime the origin certainly can be shifted as far into the future or the past as you might like. I am not sure if that is what the OP intended or not, it is hard to read.

Aemilius
Nov15-10, 05:50 PM
From the equation of time dilation we can deduce a consequence that surprise me . If we know that in our frame system is future and in other frame system is past , and from pointview of the other frame system must be another frame system that is past from our pointview and so on from the equation t=t0\times\gamma where \gamma is einsteinian invariant we can get the following consequence : In our universe must be a frame system that is the infinite past and future. What do you think ? What is wrong and right on this idea ?

Not wrong but utterly impractical.