raul.cuesta
Nov17-10, 04:35 PM
Hello,
It's well known that the action for a relativistic point particle is:
S=-m\int d\tau\left(-\dot{x}^2\right)^{1/2}
the canonical momentum is
p_{\mu}= \frac{m\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\left(-\dot{x}^2\right)^{1/2}}.
This action is invariant under reparametrizations of \tau, then its canonical Hamiltonian vanishes and we have a primary constraint of first class:
\varphi_1=p^{2}+m^{2}\approx 0.
Then, in order to eliminate all arbitrary funtions of the system we can use the gauge freedom in the action, this is done by imposing a second constraint \varphi_2 such that \varphi_1 becomes second class and now we can use the Dirac brackets to work out the problem.
My question is: Is it valid if I ask the Dirac brackets to be
\left\{x^{\mu},p^{\nu}\right\}_{D}=\eta^{\mu\nu},
\left\{x^{\mu},x^{\nu}\right\}_{D}=\left\{p^{\mu}, p^{\nu}\right\}_{D}=0,
and then I try to find the conditions on \varphi_2 and finally work with this brackets?
It's well known that the action for a relativistic point particle is:
S=-m\int d\tau\left(-\dot{x}^2\right)^{1/2}
the canonical momentum is
p_{\mu}= \frac{m\dot{x}_{\mu}}{\left(-\dot{x}^2\right)^{1/2}}.
This action is invariant under reparametrizations of \tau, then its canonical Hamiltonian vanishes and we have a primary constraint of first class:
\varphi_1=p^{2}+m^{2}\approx 0.
Then, in order to eliminate all arbitrary funtions of the system we can use the gauge freedom in the action, this is done by imposing a second constraint \varphi_2 such that \varphi_1 becomes second class and now we can use the Dirac brackets to work out the problem.
My question is: Is it valid if I ask the Dirac brackets to be
\left\{x^{\mu},p^{\nu}\right\}_{D}=\eta^{\mu\nu},
\left\{x^{\mu},x^{\nu}\right\}_{D}=\left\{p^{\mu}, p^{\nu}\right\}_{D}=0,
and then I try to find the conditions on \varphi_2 and finally work with this brackets?