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View Full Version : Is the harmonic oscillator Hamiltonian an unbounded operator?


AxiomOfChoice
Nov18-10, 12:17 PM
My answer would be "yes," and here's my argument: If we let

H = -\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac 12 m \omega^2 x^2,

it is a Hermitian operator with familiar normalized eigenfunctions \phi_n(x) (these are products of Hermite polynomials and gaussians) and associated eigenvalues E_n = \hbar \omega(n + 1/2), n = 0,1,2,\ldots. I claim H is unbounded because, in order to be bounded, there would need to be a constant c\in \mathbb R such that \| H \psi \| \leq c \|\psi\| for all \psi \in L^2(-\infty,\infty), the Hilbert space of square integrable functions (i.e., the norm in question is the L^2 norm). No such c exists, however; if we focus only on the eigenfunctions, we have

H \phi_n(x) = \hbar \omega (n + 1/2) \phi_n,
[/itex]
so
[tex]
\| H \phi_n(x) \| = \hbar \omega (n + 1/2) \| \phi_n(x) \| = \hbar \omega (n + 1/2),

which can be made larger than any constant we care to pick by taking n large enough. Hence H is an unbounded operator.

...is this correct?

xepma
Nov18-10, 12:27 PM
The Hamiltonian is only bounded from below.

AxiomOfChoice
Nov18-10, 01:19 PM
The Hamiltonian is only bounded from below.
What does "bounded from below" mean, rigorously?

martinbn
Nov18-10, 02:17 PM
What does "bounded from below" mean, rigorously?

May be it means: the spectrum is bounded from below(left) subset of the reals?

Dickfore
Nov18-10, 02:26 PM
What does "bounded from below" mean, rigorously?

Maybe this:

...in order to be bounded from below, there would need to be a constant c\in \mathbb R such that \| H \psi \| \geq c \|\psi\| for all \psi \in L^2(-\infty,\infty), the Hilbert space of square integrable functions (i.e., the norm in question is the L^2 norm).
?

dextercioby
Nov18-10, 04:53 PM
See this page here. It's well written, because the author(s) read good books.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unbounded_operator