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If f:A -> B and g:B -> C are functions, is this true: f o g is also a function and (f o g) ^-1 = gof
I think this isn't true, but if this isn't the case, could someone please tell me a counter example?? Thanks
matt grime
Sep27-04, 08:55 AM
with that notation fog is not a function, gof is a function from A (to B thence) to C. but that is jsut the notational convention: functions read from right ot left. the inverse part *is* wrong. firstly that isn't function, never mind one that posses an inverse (which a function) may or may not do. So it's hard to find a counter example given that.
Thanks, but what could be a counterexample for it??
matt grime
Sep27-04, 09:05 AM
erm, counter example to what? g sends an element of B to an element in C, right? You cannot then follow that with a function from A to anywhere since C is not necessarily a subset of A. counter example is any function g where its image does not lie in the domain of f.
this looks a lot like homework, so i think you should be able to find a counter example if you want to; i've given you the reason why it is not necessairly true
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