View Full Version : Question about inner product spaces
AxiomOfChoice
Nov19-10, 10:31 PM
Suppose you have an inner product space V (not necessarily finite dimensional; so it could be an infinite dimensional Hilbert space or something). Fix a vector \Phi in this space. Given an arbitrary vector \Psi \in V, can I write it as
\Psi = \Psi^{\parallel} + \Psi^{\perp},
where \Psi^{\parallel} is parallel to the given \Phi and \Psi^{\perp} is perpendicular to the given \Phi?
arkajad
Nov20-10, 01:39 AM
If the inner product is positive definite, then you can. Just write:
\Psi^\parallel = \frac{(\Phi,\Psi)}{(\Phi,\Phi)}\,\Phi
\Psi^\perp=\Psi-\Psi^\parallel
This is just the fact that
V=<\Phi>\oplus <\Phi>^\perp
where <> denotes the span.
Fredrik
Nov21-10, 02:01 PM
The more general theorem says that if x is a member of a Hilbert space H, and K is a closed linear subspace of H, there's a unique y in K such that x-y\perp K. If we define x_\parallel=y and x_\perp=x-y, we can write x=x_\parallel+x_\perp. The theorem also says that y is at the minimum distance from x: d(x,y)=d(x,K).
(I'm saying linear subspace to emphasize that it's a subspace of the vector space, not the Hilbert space. A closed linear subspace is a linear subspace that's also a closed set. Some authors use the term "linear subspace" only when the set is closed, and the term "linear manifold" when it may not be closed).
@Fredrik: V is not assumed to be a Hilbert space (i.e. need not be complete) in this topic.
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