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Given a scalar-valued function f=f(x,y), if it's true that \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x \partial y}=\frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial y \partial x}, what does that tell about function f? Does it mean that it's continuous, or does it need to be smooth, or...?
I'm presuming that the correct answer is that the function f must be continuous.
neutrino
Oct4-04, 01:41 PM
You are right. The partial derivatives upto that order should exist and be continuous at the point under consideration.
ReyChiquito
Oct4-04, 02:05 PM
Its more than continous, actually it tells you that the function f is differentiable.
f(x,y)\in C^{1}
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