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kuba
Oct4-04, 01:13 PM
Given a scalar-valued function f=f(x,y), if it's true that \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x \partial y}=\frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial y \partial x}, what does that tell about function f? Does it mean that it's continuous, or does it need to be smooth, or...?

kuba
Oct4-04, 01:32 PM
I'm presuming that the correct answer is that the function f must be continuous.

neutrino
Oct4-04, 01:41 PM
You are right. The partial derivatives upto that order should exist and be continuous at the point under consideration.

ReyChiquito
Oct4-04, 02:05 PM
Its more than continous, actually it tells you that the function f is differentiable.

f(x,y)\in C^{1}