josephwouk
Jan27-11, 07:19 AM
I'm wondering why I haven't run into a discussion anywhere that uses Feynman's model of anti-matter moving backward in time to explain the paucity of anti-matter in our universe.
Quite simply:
The big bang created equal quantities of matter and anti matter.
Almost all that was produced mutually annihilated.
Those particles that avoided their anti-particle took off in two opposite directions of time.
As time passed, they became further and further away from each other in space-time.
The seeming paradox, of course, is what happens when the anti-matter returns to the moment of the big bang?
But since time itself was also created by the big bang, the anti-matter can never return to it, but instead must continue backwards in time.
This makes sense only when one regards the universe as four dimensional and infinite in size/potential size.
There has to be something wrong with this reasoning, or I would have read it. Could someone help me?
Quite simply:
The big bang created equal quantities of matter and anti matter.
Almost all that was produced mutually annihilated.
Those particles that avoided their anti-particle took off in two opposite directions of time.
As time passed, they became further and further away from each other in space-time.
The seeming paradox, of course, is what happens when the anti-matter returns to the moment of the big bang?
But since time itself was also created by the big bang, the anti-matter can never return to it, but instead must continue backwards in time.
This makes sense only when one regards the universe as four dimensional and infinite in size/potential size.
There has to be something wrong with this reasoning, or I would have read it. Could someone help me?