View Full Version : Boundary Value Problem
MathematicalPhysics
Oct16-04, 12:38 PM
I need some help starting off on this question.
Electrostatic potential V (x,y) in the channel - \infty < x < \infty, 0 \leq y \leq a satisfies the Laplace Equation
\frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial y^2}= 0
the wall y = 0 is earthed so that
V (x,0) = 0
while the potential on the wall y = a
V (x,a) = V_0 \cos{kx} where V_0 , k are positive constants.
By seeking a soln of an appropriate form, find V (x,y) in the channel.
arildno
Oct16-04, 12:43 PM
When in doubt, try separation of variables!
V(x,y)=F(x)G(y).
Inserting this into Laplace, yields, by rearrangement:
\frac{G''(y)}{G(y)}=-\frac{F''(x)}{F(x)}
MathematicalPhysics
Oct16-04, 01:50 PM
Thanks, I was trying to get it in the form V (x,y) = F (a) V_0 \cos{kx} then sub the values into the Laplace eqn. Is that going about it the wrong way?
arildno
Oct16-04, 01:54 PM
You DO mean (in my notation!)
V(x,y)=G(y)V_{0}\cos(kx)???
If so, then it will work.
Note that the separation of variables method in this case implies:
G''(y)=k^{2}G(y)
MathematicalPhysics
Oct16-04, 02:06 PM
Hmm im not really keeping up with you here sorry. How can I find things out about F(x) and G(y) (in your notation) when we have just introduced them?
--------edit----------
oh yes sorry im with you, then differentiate V (x,y) = G(y) V_0 cos (kx) to get the different bits to go in the Laplace eqn? ahh!
arildno
Oct16-04, 03:03 PM
Your lightbulb switched on in your edit, I see..:wink:
Hint:
You should be able to see that G(y)=ASinh(ky), where A is some constant, and Sinh() the hyperbolic sine function.
MathematicalPhysics
Oct16-04, 04:01 PM
Now I've got G''(y) - k^2 G (y) = 0, still on the right track yeh?
arildno
Oct16-04, 04:05 PM
Yes, you are.
MathematicalPhysics
Oct17-04, 04:30 AM
Now I've got G''(y) - k^2 G (y) = 0, still on the right track yeh?
From this how do I get to G(y)=ASinh(ky)?
arildno
Oct17-04, 10:42 AM
Note that:
\frac{d}{dy}ASinh(ky)=kACosh(ky),\frac{d^{2}}{dy^{ 2}}ASinh(ky)=k^{2}ASinh(ky)
This shows that ASinh(ky) is a solution for G(y).
Similarly, you may show that BCosh(ky) is another solution for G(y).
Your general solution is therefore:
G(y)=ASinh(ky)+BCosh(ky)
Apply the boundary condition at y=0 to prove that B=0
MathematicalPhysics
Oct17-04, 11:02 AM
Thanks for being so patient. How can I show that ASinh(ky) is a soln for G(y)? Im used to looking at the differential eqn and substituting
G(y) = e^{ry} so G'(y) = re^{ry} and G''(y) = r^2. e^{ry}
Is there no such substitution to show that ASinh(ky) & BCosh(ky) are solns?
arildno
Oct17-04, 11:06 AM
Thanks for being so patient. How can I show that ASinh(ky) is a soln for G(y)? Im used to looking at the differential eqn and substituting
G(y) = e^{ry} so G'(y) = re^{ry} and G''(y) = r^2. e^{ry}
Is there no such substitution to show that ASinh(ky) & BCosh(ky) are solns?
Your approach is ABSOLUTELY correct!
Do you agree with the following result, using your method:
r=\pm{k}??
MathematicalPhysics
Oct17-04, 11:14 AM
Your approach is ABSOLUTELY correct!
Do you agree with the following result, using your method:
r=\pm{k}??
Yeh which gives gen soln G (y) = Ae^{ky} + Be^{-ky}
but the boundary condition at y=0 doesnt allow for B so we are left with
G(y) = Ae^{ky} ?
arildno
Oct17-04, 11:31 AM
A bit too fast there..
Let's write the general solution for G(y) as follows:
G(y)=K_{+}e^{ky}+K_{-}e^{-ky}
where the K's are constants to be determined by boundary conditions.
Prior to that step, however, let's rewrite the general solution as:
G(y)=(K_{+}+K_{-})\frac{e^{ky}+e^{-ky}}{2}+(K_{+}-K_{-})\frac{e^{ky}-e^{-ky}}{2}
1. We now set B=K_{+}+K_{-},A=K_{+}-K_{-}
(Clearly, A and B are as arbitrary as the K's!)
2) We now recognize:
Cosh(ky)=\frac{e^{ky}+e^{-ky}}{2}
Sinh(ky)=\frac{e^{ky}-e^{-ky}}{2}
Or, we may rewrite G(y) as:
G(y)=ASinh(ky)+BCosh(ky)
MathematicalPhysics
Oct17-04, 12:05 PM
right now I need to find
B: iv done this and basically its because cosh can never be zero which implies B must be zero.
A: at y=a V(x,a) = V_0 cos{kx}
therefore for y=a, G(y)=1
ASinh(ka) = 1 is that right?
hmm im not sure about this.
arildno
Oct17-04, 01:02 PM
Yep, so your solution is:
V(x,y)=V_{0}\frac{Sinh(ky)\cos(kx)}{Sinh(ka)}
MathematicalPhysics
Oct17-04, 02:49 PM
Thank you so much, I understand much more now than I did even yesterday!
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