View Full Version : Commutator Troubles
I'm having difficulty trying to figure out which of the following is the correct method to properly evaluate the effect of the operators on f(x).
Given that,
\hat{A}f(x)=<x|\hat{A}|f>
If the polarity operator, \hat{U_p}, and the translation operator, \hat{U_t}(a), act as
\hat{U_p}f(x)=f(-x)
\hat{U_t}(a)f(x)=f(x-a)
Which of the following is the correct method of evaluating the commutator [\hat{U_p},\hat{U_t}(a)]f(x).
\begin{array}{rl}
\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)f(x)&=\hat{U_p}f(x-a)\\
&=f(-x+a)
or
\begin{array}{rl}
\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)f(x)&=<x|\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)|f>\\
&=<-x|\hat{U_t}(a)|f>\\
&=<-x-a|f>\\
&=f(-x-a)
Why do I get a different result? The order of the operators acting has obviously changed, but which is the correct order? I am tempted to believe the second case, but I can't really see the difference.
They are both correct. What you have proven here is that the commutator of the two operators is NOT 0.
marlon
Hey Marlon,
Thanks for the answer, but that's not what I was trying to get at. I realize that either way I evaluate these the commutation relation will be non-zero, I just get a different relation depending on the method. Which is what I'm wondering here.
\begin{array}{rl}
[\hat{U_p},\hat{U_t}(a)]f(x)&=<x|\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)|f>-<x|\hat{U_t}(a)\hat{U_p}|f>\\
&=<-x|\hat{U_t}(a)|f>-<x-a|\hat{U_p}|f>\\
&=<-x-a|f>-<-x+a|f>\\
&=f(-x-a)-f(-x+a)
\end{array}
and
\begin{array}{rl}
[\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)]f(x)&=\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)f(x)-\hat{U_t}(a)\hat{U_p}f(x)\\
&=\hat{U_p}f(x-a)-\hat{U_t}(a)f(-x)\\
&=f(-x+a)-f(-x-a)
\end{array}
These commutation relations are clearly not equivalent. I am trying to figure out which one is the correct interpretation. I can not seem to see a flaw in either, but there must be some subtle difference between the way in which I have evaluated them. Basically, the order of the operators is reversed between the two, but I am unsure which is the correct order.
James R
Nov11-04, 03:41 AM
You say:
<-x|\hat{U_t}(a)|f> = <-x-a|f>
But
\hat{U_t}(a)|x> = |x - a>?
So, I think
\hat{U_t}(a)|-x> = |-(x-a)> = |-x+a>
Is that right? If so, that's your mistake.
In fact, \hat{U_t}(a)|x> = |x+a>
\hat{U_t}(a) represents the translation operator, translating the current x-coordinate.
<x|\hat{U_t}(a) = <x|\hat{U_t}^\dagger(-a) = <x-a|
hence, my statement that
\hat{U_t}(a)f(x) = <x|\hat{U_t}(a)|f> = <x-a|f> = f(x-a)
So, if the current x coordinate is -x then the new coordinate should be -x+a, not -x-a. Following that method, I get the following though, which still doesn't match.
\begin{array}{rl}
[\hat{U_p},\hat{U_t}(a)]f(x)&=<x|\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)|f>-<x|\hat{U_t}(a)\hat{U_p}|f>\\
&=<-x|\hat{U_t}(a)|f>-<x-a|\hat{U_t}(a)|f>\\
&=<-(x-a)|f>-<-(x-a)|f>\\
&=f(-x+a)-f(-x+a)
\end{array}
ZapperZ
Nov11-04, 09:57 AM
Have we established the validity that if A and B are each Hermitian, that AB and BA are also hermitian? If not, then even if you can write <i|A|j> and <i|B|j>, it doesn't necessarily follow that you can write <i|AB|j> etc. This is only valid for a hermitian operator, is it not? That might explain why it "doesn't match".
Zz.
Edit: Er.. never mind. I should have proved it to myself before I posted this. Carry on....
The problem lies in assuming that A f(x) and <x|A|f> are the same thing. They are not.
In fact, <x|a|f> = integral/sum over y of <x|A|y><y|f>. So your second method is incorrect, as far as evaluating Up Ut f is concerned.
Regards,
Reilly Atkinson
I just want to ensure that I understand you correctly. Especially since I wrote out the statements in two different orders.
To recap how I interpret things,
f(x)=<x|f>
\begin{array}{rl}
\hat{A}f(x)&=<x|\hat{A}|f>\\
&=\int dx' <x|\hat{A}|x'><x|f>
\end{array}
Now, if I let \hat{A}=\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a) then,
\begin{array}{rl}
\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)f(x)&=\int dx' <x|\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)|x'><x'|f>\\
&=\int dx' <x|\hat{U_p}|x'+a><x'|f>\\
&=\int dx' <x|-x'-a><x'|f>\\
&=\int dx' \delta(x+x'+a) <x'|f>\\
&=f(-x-a)
since, x'=-x-a.
Thanks for your help.
lalbatros
Nov11-04, 03:16 PM
This step is not correct I think:
\begin{array}{rl}\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)f(x)&=\hat{U_p}f(x-a)\\&=f(-x+a)
indeed:
\begin{array}{rl}\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)f(x)&=\hat{U_p}f(x-a))\\&=\hat{U_p}g(x)\\&=g(-x)\\&=f(-x-a)
where g(x) = f(x-a)
and where I assume the rules of the game are as above since the definitions are valid for any functions
lalbatros,
I think you made a mistake in going from g(-x') to f(-x-a).
If we define x' \equiv x-a, as you have done to go from f(x-a) \Rightarrow g(x'), then shouldn't we find that -x'=-(x-a)=-x+a?
lalbatros
Nov12-04, 03:06 AM
Hi
I did not define x' = x-a and g(x') = f(x-a)
I defined g(x) = f(x-a) , g is another function of x
and since the operators apply in the same way for all functions of x, the result follows.
To summarize: check the definition of the parity operator, it applies to any function of course
lalbatros,
To manipulate it in such a manner, you assume the particle is at x, not x+a. The parity operator should effectively reflect around the axis, meaning something that is at x+a must be x+a to the left, or, at -x-a.
lalbatros
Nov12-04, 08:18 AM
The parity operator is simply:
"replace x by -x"
By that definition (very different than the one I have learned) these operators do commute. Something I am quite certain they should not. Your definition leads to,
\begin{array}{rl}
[\hat{U_t}(a),\hat{U_p}]f(x)&=\hat{U_t}(a)\hat{U_p}f(x)-\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)f(x)\\
&=\hat{U_t}(a)f(-x)-\hat{U_p}f(x-a)\\
&=f(-x-a)-f(-x-a)\\
&=0
\end{array}
dextercioby
Nov12-04, 08:33 AM
I just want to ensure that I understand you correctly. Especially since I wrote out the statements in two different orders.
To recap how I interpret things,
f(x)=<x|f>
\begin{array}{rl}
\hat{A}f(x)&=<x|\hat{A}|f>\\
&=\int dx' <x|\hat{A}|x'><x|f>
\end{array}
Now, if I let \hat{A}=\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a) then,
\begin{array}{rl}
\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)f(x)&=\int dx' <x|\hat{U_p}\hat{U_t}(a)|x'><x'|f>\\
&=\int dx' <x|\hat{U_p}|x'+a><x'|f>\\
&=\int dx' <x|-x'-a><x'|f>\\
&=\int dx' \delta(x+x'+a) <x'|f>\\
&=f(-x-a)
since, x'=-x-a.
Thanks for your help.
Why the polemics,this the correct version,in agreement with QM principles and position/momentum representations of vectors and operators...
lalbatros
Nov12-04, 10:00 AM
Read a definition here:
http://scienceworld.wolfram.com/physics/Parity.html
Other starting points are possible of course. You can choose different representations.
But in the choosen way, all this is quite simple.
I did not make any comment on their commutator.
You can check that they do not commute:
UaUp f(x) = Ua f(-x) = f(-(x-a)) = f(-x+a)
UpUa f(x) = Up f(x-a) = f(-x-a)
Interpretation:
plane waves are eigenfunctions of the translation operator Ua,
but they are obviously not eigenfunctions of the parity operator (except for a zero wavevector).
ps: the reason of my posts is that the formula for UpUa f(x) in the first post was not correct (see above here), not taste for polemic!
Note, a la lalbatros, Up Ut(a) = Up Ut(a) U(-1)p Up = Ut(-a) Up, where, in spite of cumbersome notation, U(-1)p is the inverse of Up, the parity transformation. Indeed, parity and translations do not commute.
Regards,
Reilly Atkinson
lalbatros
Nov12-04, 02:54 PM
Reilly,
Thanks for your summary:
Up Ut(a) = Ut(-a) Up
This tells it crystal clear.
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