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kreil
Nov21-04, 08:15 AM
e^{i\pi}=-1

I was wondering how on earth this was possible. I know that:


e^z = 1 + z + \frac{z^2}{2!} + \frac{z^3}{3!}+...+\frac{z^n}{n!}


So


e^{i\pi}=1+i\pi+\frac{-\pi^2}{2!}+\frac{-\pi^3i}{3!}+\frac{\pi^4}{4!}...


I was wondering if there is any way to solve this other than punching out actual numbers and seeing about where they converge to?

CTS
Nov21-04, 10:59 AM
e^ix = cos x + i sin x

kreil
Nov21-04, 11:22 AM
thanks, I didn't know about that equation

mathman
Nov21-04, 03:50 PM
If you look at the power series for cos(x), sin(x) and eix, the relationship will be obvious.