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courtrigrad
Nov21-04, 09:46 AM
When they ask you to set up integral formulas for the derivative of 1/(x+1), would you use the fundemental theorem of calculus and set up a definite integral, or an indefinite integral. Can someone help me clarify this?

Thanks

Galileo
Nov21-04, 10:01 AM
Integral formulas are (almost to my knowledge) expressed in indefinite inegrals, since all you need is an antiderivative of the integrand.

i.e.
\int\frac{dx}{x}=\ln x+C