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Belgium 12
Sep30-11, 03:00 PM
Hi

I have a little problem with the integrals of the following functions.

integral from 0to 2pi ∫sin^2(nθ+ψ)dθ=∫cos^2(nθ+ψ)dθ=pi

ψ=the phase angle.They occur in the theory of vibrations.

Is it appropriate to set ψ=0

Thank you

dacruick
Sep30-11, 03:11 PM
In general probably not. But your bounds are 0-2pi so I would say that phase doesn't matter

dacruick
Sep30-11, 03:13 PM
And when I say that it doesn't matter, I mean that it won't affect the value of that integral. I think that 2*pi will be divisible by the period of both of those functions regardless of n.