Belgium 12
Sep30-11, 03:00 PM
Hi
I have a little problem with the integrals of the following functions.
integral from 0to 2pi ∫sin^2(nθ+ψ)dθ=∫cos^2(nθ+ψ)dθ=pi
ψ=the phase angle.They occur in the theory of vibrations.
Is it appropriate to set ψ=0
Thank you
I have a little problem with the integrals of the following functions.
integral from 0to 2pi ∫sin^2(nθ+ψ)dθ=∫cos^2(nθ+ψ)dθ=pi
ψ=the phase angle.They occur in the theory of vibrations.
Is it appropriate to set ψ=0
Thank you