How to find the 10th derivative of f(x)=\sqrt{1+x^2} using binomial series?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the 10th derivative of the function f(x) = √(1 + x²) using the binomial series expansion. The participants explore the Maclaurin series representation of the function and the implications of differentiating the series.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the binomial series to express f(x) and how to extract the 10th derivative from the resulting series. There are questions about the contributions of different terms in the series to the derivative and the role of factorials in the calculations.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided insights into the differentiation process and the significance of specific terms in the series. There is an ongoing clarification regarding the presence of factorials in the calculations, with some participants questioning their omission and others explaining their cancellation.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the constraints of the problem, particularly focusing on the series expansion and the differentiation of even-powered terms. The original poster expresses confusion about the differentiation yielding zero for certain terms, indicating a need for further exploration of the series behavior.

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(a) Use the binomial series to find the Maclaurin series of

[tex]f(x)=\sqrt{1+x^2}[/tex]

[tex]f(x)=\sqrt{1+x^2} = \left( 1+x^2 \right) ^{1/2} = \sum _{n=0} ^{\infty} \binom{1/2}{n} x^{2n} = \binom{1/2}{0} + \binom{1/2}{1}x^2 + \binom{1/2}{3}x^6 + \binom{1/2}{4}x^8 + \cdots[/tex]

[tex]f(x)= 1 + \frac{1}{2}x^2 + \frac{\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)\left( -\frac{1}{2} \right)}{2!}x^4 + \frac{\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)\left( -\frac{1}{2} \right) \left( -\frac{3}{2} \right) }{3!}x^6 + \frac{\left( \frac{1}{2} \right)\left( -\frac{1}{2} \right) \left( -\frac{3}{2} \right) \left( -\frac{5}{2} \right) }{4!}x^8 + \cdots[/tex]


[tex]f(x)= 1 + \frac{1}{2}x^2 + \sum _{n=2} ^{\infty} (-1)^{n-1} \frac{1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot \cdots \cdot (2n-3)}{n!2^n}x^{2n}[/tex]

(a) Use (a) to evaluate [tex]f^{(10)}(0).[/tex] (answer: 99,225)

I've had some difficulty to see how this result is obtained, since the [tex]x^{2n}[/tex] in the series above seems to give 0 despite the differentiation steps . Can anybody help me clarify this?

Thanks
 
Last edited:
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You have a bunch of terms in the form [itex]a_0x^0 + a_2x^2 + a_4x^4 + \dots[/itex]. Take the tenth derivative, and you will get:

[tex]a_0(0) + a_2(0) + \dots + a_{10}\frac{d^{10}}{dx^{10}}x^{10} + a_{12}\frac{d^{10}}{dx^{10}}x^{12} + \dots[/tex]

The first few terms will obviously give zero. The terms with powers higher than 10 will have some x remaining in the tenth derivative, so those will also go to zero. Only the term containing the 10th power will remain in some form. I believe you will get:

[tex]\frac{(1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 7)(10\cdot 9\cdot 8\cdot 7\cdot 6\cdot)}{32} = 99225[/tex]
 
Just one thing...

[tex]\frac{(1\cdot 3\cdot 5\cdot 7)(10\cdot 9\cdot 8\cdot 7\cdot 6)}{2^5} = 99225[/tex]

That makes sense, but why don't you have the denominator: [tex]5!2^5[/tex]?

Why doesn't a 5! appear in your computation?
 
It does, but it gets canceled out, i.e. 10!/5! = 10 x 9 x 8 x 7 x 6
 
Oh... sure. Thanks a lot!
 

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