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jackmell
Nov27-11, 09:58 AM
Hi,

I'm told that a basic result in algebraic geometry is that all algebraic functions w(z) of one variable given by the equation:

f(w,z)=a_n(z)w^n+a_{n-1}(z)w^{n-1}+\cdots+a_0(z)=0

can be written in terms of fractional power series of the form:

w(z)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}a_n \left(z^{1/d}\right)^n

Might someone here suggest an accessible reference that goes over the proof or perhaps take a moment to explain some of the basic ideas behind the proof to me?

Thanks,
Jack

Hurkyl
Nov27-11, 10:20 AM
My gut feeling is just set d=n! (or to the lcm of 1, 2, .., n), plug in, and show that you can solve for the coefficients.

jackmell
Nov27-11, 01:19 PM
My gut feeling is just set d=n! (or to the lcm of 1, 2, .., n), plug in, and show that you can solve for the coefficients.

Afraid I don't follow that Hurkyl. My main question is how do I show the existence of such a power series representation and then show that it actually converges to the function in the specified domain.