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courtrigrad
Dec7-04, 05:41 PM
Hello all

I was just wondering whether this is acceptable:

f(x) = log (base 5) x.

f' '(x) = 1 / x * log (base 5) e.

Any responses are greatly appreciated!

Zurtex
Dec7-04, 05:50 PM
Well I don't actually see a method here, try and work it out:

y= \log_a (x)

a^y = x

\ln (a) a^y \frac{dy}{dx} = 1

\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\ln (a) a^y}

\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\ln (a) a^{\log_a (x)}}

\frac{dy}{dx} = \frac{1}{\ln (a) x}

HallsofIvy
Dec8-04, 08:20 AM
but ln(5)= 1/ log5(e) so if courtrigrad meant

\frac{1}{x log_5(e)}

that's completely correct.

Sick0Fant
Dec8-04, 12:25 PM
I think this is it.

log(base 5)x=ln(x)/ln(5)
d/dx(ln(x)/ln(5)=1/(ln(5)x)

If not, then I'll hit myself over the head with my Calc book.

EDIT: I guess somebody pretty much said the same thing before I did... sorry.