View Full Version : surjective and bijective mapping
Bernoulli
Dec10-04, 07:03 AM
Hi, can anyone tell me what a surjective mapping between Hilbertspaces is? That is: what does surjective mean? What about bijective?
I mean what is special about a mapping if it is sujective or bijective?
matt grime
Dec10-04, 07:11 AM
A map f:X -> Y is
injective if f(x)=f(z) => x=z, ie for any point in the image there is a unique preimage.
surjective if for all y in Y there is an x in X such that f(x)=y
bijective if it is both injective and surjective
A map has an inverse iff it is bijective.
I don't understand how you've got to Hilbert Spaces without being taught this.
Bernoulli
Dec10-04, 07:20 AM
Thanks for fast reply...
I must have been away when they told us that.
matt grime
Dec10-04, 07:35 AM
It's just that the definition of inj and surj and hence bijection is 1st year undergrad maths, if not school, and hilbert spaces is 2nd or 3rd year undergraduate maths.
HallsofIvy
Dec10-04, 11:19 AM
The terms "one-to-one" and "onto" are sometimes used for "injective" and "surjective".
A function from one set to another (doesn't have to be a Hilbert Space) is "injective" or "one-to-one" if and only if f(x)= f(y) implies x= y. In other words, only one value of x gives any one value of y.
A function from one set to another is "surjective" or "onto" if and only if for every y in the range set, there exist x in the domain such that f(x)= y. In other words, there are no "left over" members of the range set.
Bernoulli
Dec10-04, 02:13 PM
Im in my third year now, and i never really heard the formal definition on this before. I came across the words in a book and i just wondered what they ment.
But anyway, this seams like a very good site.
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