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jgens
Dec26-11, 01:52 PM
I am trying to prove the following results: If α and β are ordinals, then the orderings (α,∈) and (β,∈) are isomorphic if and only if α = β.

So far, I have only proved that the class Ord is transitive and well-ordered by ∈. I can prove this result with the following lemma: If f:α→β is an order-preserving map, then z ≤ f(z). However, I am having difficulty proving this lemma without something like transfinite induction. Any help?

micromass
Dec26-11, 02:13 PM
Assume that z\leq f(z) does NOT hold. Then there is a least a such that f(a)<a. Take f of both sides.

jgens
Dec26-11, 02:58 PM
That works perfectly! I am silly for not thinking of something like that. Thanks!