How can I find the tangent line to y(x) at x=0 using the integral equation?

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding the tangent line to the function y(x) defined by an integral equation at the point x=0. The equation includes two integrals, one dependent on y and the other on x, and participants are exploring the implications of this relationship.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to equate the two integrals to derive y(x) and its derivative. They question the correctness of their method and the value of y(0). Other participants suggest using implicit differentiation and clarify the relationship between y and the integrals.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively discussing the correct interpretation of the integral equation and its implications for finding y(0) and y'(0). Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of the fundamental theorem of calculus to find the derivative, and there is an exploration of different interpretations of the integral equation.

Contextual Notes

There is a discussion about the assumptions regarding the values of y and the implications of setting y equal to the integrals directly. The original poster expresses uncertainty about the value of y(0) and the method used to find the tangent line.

Chen
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y(x) is defined by this equation:

[tex]\int_0^y{\sqrt[3]{1+t^2} dt} + \int_x^0{(2t+1)^2 dt} = 0[/tex]

How do I find the tangent line to y(x) at x=0?

Here's what I tried to do:

[tex]y(x) = \int_0^y{\sqrt[3]{1+t^2} dt} = \int_0^x{(2t+1)^2 dt}[/tex]

Taking the derivative of both sides of the equation:

[tex]y'(x) = ... = (2x+1)^2 = 4x^2 + 4x + 1[/tex]
[tex]y'(x=0) = 1[/tex]

First, is this method correct?

Second, how do I find y(x=0)? I'm guessing that it's 0, but I'm not sure.

Thanks,
Chen
 
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seems simple enough...

just substitue the first and second integrals using the y and x as if they're values and equate them to each other like you have done. find y'. may have to use implicit differentiation. then equate to 0
 
You say that y is defined by
[tex]\int_0^y{\sqrt[3]{1+t^2} dt} + \int_x^0{(2t+1)^2 dt} = 0[/tex]

It does NOT follow that
[tex]y(x) = \int_0^y{\sqrt[3]{1+t^2} dt} = \int_0^x{(2t+1)^2 dt}[/tex]
There is no reason for the first "y= ". Saying that y is "defined by" the formula does not mean you can just set y equal to both parts- it means that for any given value of x, y must have the value that makes the two integrals equal. In particular, when x= 0, the right hand side is 0 so y must be such that [itex]\int_0^y{\sqrt[3]{1+t^2}dt}= 0[/itex] and that means that y(0)= 0, not 1.

You can use the "fundamental theorem of calculus" to find the derivative of y:

The derivative of the left side is [itex]\sqrt[3]{1+ y^2}y'[/itex] while the the derivative of the right side is -(2x+1)2. In particular, at x= 0, y= 0,
[itex]\sqrt[3]{1+0^2}y'(0)= -(2(0)+1)^2[/itex] or y'(0)= -1. The tangent line goes through (0,0) and has slope -1: y= -x.
 
Thanks Ivy. :smile:
 

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