Converging Sums: Strategies for Solving Challenging Series

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series \(\sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{n^2}{ \left( 2 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^{n}}\). Participants are exploring various strategies for analyzing this series, including limits and comparisons with known convergent series.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the d'Alembert ratio test and comparisons with \(\frac{1}{2^{n}}\) but finds these methods unsuccessful. Other participants suggest examining limits and changing variables to simplify the expression. Questions arise regarding the algebraic steps involved in manipulating the limit expressions.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, offering various approaches and clarifying misunderstandings. Some guidance has been provided regarding the use of limits and comparisons, though no consensus has been reached on a definitive method.

Contextual Notes

There appears to be some confusion regarding algebraic manipulations and the assumptions underlying the limit processes. Additionally, the original poster's attempts at applying specific convergence tests have not yielded clear results, indicating potential gaps in the setup or approach.

twoflower
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Hi,

I have this sum:

[tex] \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty} \frac{n^2}{ \left( 2 + \frac{1}{n} \right)^{n}}[/tex]

I tried d'Alembert, I tried comparing it with [itex]\frac{1}{2^{n}}[/itex], but without success.

Could somebody point me to the right direction please?

Thank you.
 
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[tex]\lim (2+1/n)^n = \lim (2(1+1/2(1/n))^n =\lim 2^n (1+1/n)^{n/2}[/tex]
can you get from here?
 
vincentchan said:
[tex]\lim (2+1/n)^n = \lim (2(1+1/2(1/n))^n =\lim 2^n (1+1/n)^{n/2}[/tex]
can you get from here?

Thank you vincentchan, but I don't understand the second step - how can I get

[tex] \left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)^{n/2}[/tex]

from

[tex] \left(1+\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)^{n}[/tex]

I know it must be some simple algebraic adjustment but I can't see that...
 
use change of variable, let u=n/2 the limit will become u->infinity/2, but infinity divided by 2 is also infinity... so u->infinity
 
OH... i made a mistake in post 2, the big idea is the same... see if you can catch it...
 
You can also compare it with:

[tex]\sum_n \frac{n^2}{2^n}[/tex]
 
vincentchan said:
use change of variable, let u=n/2 the limit will become u->infinity/2, but infinity divided by 2 is also infinity... so u->infinity

I see it now (with being aware of the mistake you did :) ) I wouldn't see the possibility of the change at the first look, however.
 
Galileo said:
You can also compare it with:

[tex]\sum_n \frac{n^2}{2^n}[/tex]

You're right, this is probably the easiest way. Thank you.
 

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