Convergence and Monotonicity in Limits Verification

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The discussion focuses on the convergence and monotonicity of sequences, specifically analyzing the limit of \(\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}((n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3})\) which approaches 0 using the identity \(a^3 - b^3 = (a-b)(a^2 + ab + b^2)\). Additionally, the sequence defined by \(a_n = \frac{10^n}{n!}\) is examined for its limit, monotonicity, and the estimation of the difference from the limit. The participants emphasize the use of Stirling's approximation and logarithmic properties to derive conclusions about the sequence's behavior as \(n\) increases.

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courtrigrad
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Hello all

I encountered the following problems:

(a) Prove that [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}((n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3}) = 0[/tex]

Using the relation [tex]a^3 - b^3 = (a-b)(a^2 + ab + b^2)[/tex] we get [tex]\frac{((n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3})((n+1)^\frac{1}{3})^2 + ((n+1)^\frac{1}{3}(n^\frac{1}{3}) + (n^\frac{1}{3})^2}{(n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3})}[/tex]

Hence [tex]\frac {1}{((n+1)^\frac{1}{3})^2 + ((n+1)^\frac{1}{3}(n^\frac{1}{3}) + (n^\frac{1}{3})^2}[/tex]

and this approaches 0

Also another problem I encountered was:

Let [tex]a_n = \frac {10^n}{n!}[/tex]
(a) To what limit does this converge
(b) Is this sequence monotonic
(c) Is it monotonic from a certain n onwards
(d) Give an estimate of the difference between [tex]a_n[/tex] and the limit.
(e) From what value of n onwards is this difference less than [tex]\frac {1}{100}[/tex]?

(a)Is it valid to say that just by looking we can see that the limit converges to 0? How would you do it algebraically? In other words, how do you prove that [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}(\frac {n!}{n^n} = 0)[/tex]
(b&c) I think this sequence is monotonic from a certain n onwards
(d) The estimate in the difference of the limit could be any value [tex]\epsilon[/tex]. So [tex]a_n = \frac {10^n}{n!} < \epsilon[/tex] where [tex]\epsilon = \frac {1}{100}[/tex]. IS this right? How would you actually estimate the difference?

(e) So [tex]a_n = \frac {10^n}{n!}< \frac {1}{100}[/tex]. How would you solve
for this?

Thanks a lot :smile:
 
Last edited:
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I am not sure if I can use intuituion
 
Use the fact that the natural logarithm and the limit commute and the Stirling's approximation

[tex]\ln n!\sim n\ln n-n[/tex]

for very big "n"...

Daniel.
 

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