courtrigrad
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Hello all
I encountered the following problems:
(a) Prove that [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}((n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3}) = 0[/tex]
Using the relation [tex]a^3 - b^3 = (a-b)(a^2 + ab + b^2)[/tex] we get [tex]\frac{((n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3})((n+1)^\frac{1}{3})^2 + ((n+1)^\frac{1}{3}(n^\frac{1}{3}) + (n^\frac{1}{3})^2}{(n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3})}[/tex]
Hence [tex]\frac {1}{((n+1)^\frac{1}{3})^2 + ((n+1)^\frac{1}{3}(n^\frac{1}{3}) + (n^\frac{1}{3})^2}[/tex]
and this approaches 0
Also another problem I encountered was:
Let [tex]a_n = \frac {10^n}{n!}[/tex]
(a) To what limit does this converge
(b) Is this sequence monotonic
(c) Is it monotonic from a certain n onwards
(d) Give an estimate of the difference between [tex]a_n[/tex] and the limit.
(e) From what value of n onwards is this difference less than [tex]\frac {1}{100}[/tex]?
(a)Is it valid to say that just by looking we can see that the limit converges to 0? How would you do it algebraically? In other words, how do you prove that [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}(\frac {n!}{n^n} = 0)[/tex]
(b&c) I think this sequence is monotonic from a certain n onwards
(d) The estimate in the difference of the limit could be any value [tex]\epsilon[/tex]. So [tex]a_n = \frac {10^n}{n!} < \epsilon[/tex] where [tex]\epsilon = \frac {1}{100}[/tex]. IS this right? How would you actually estimate the difference?
(e) So [tex]a_n = \frac {10^n}{n!}< \frac {1}{100}[/tex]. How would you solve
for this?
Thanks a lot
I encountered the following problems:
(a) Prove that [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}((n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3}) = 0[/tex]
Using the relation [tex]a^3 - b^3 = (a-b)(a^2 + ab + b^2)[/tex] we get [tex]\frac{((n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3})((n+1)^\frac{1}{3})^2 + ((n+1)^\frac{1}{3}(n^\frac{1}{3}) + (n^\frac{1}{3})^2}{(n+1)^\frac{1}{3} - n^\frac{1}{3})}[/tex]
Hence [tex]\frac {1}{((n+1)^\frac{1}{3})^2 + ((n+1)^\frac{1}{3}(n^\frac{1}{3}) + (n^\frac{1}{3})^2}[/tex]
and this approaches 0
Also another problem I encountered was:
Let [tex]a_n = \frac {10^n}{n!}[/tex]
(a) To what limit does this converge
(b) Is this sequence monotonic
(c) Is it monotonic from a certain n onwards
(d) Give an estimate of the difference between [tex]a_n[/tex] and the limit.
(e) From what value of n onwards is this difference less than [tex]\frac {1}{100}[/tex]?
(a)Is it valid to say that just by looking we can see that the limit converges to 0? How would you do it algebraically? In other words, how do you prove that [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}(\frac {n!}{n^n} = 0)[/tex]
(b&c) I think this sequence is monotonic from a certain n onwards
(d) The estimate in the difference of the limit could be any value [tex]\epsilon[/tex]. So [tex]a_n = \frac {10^n}{n!} < \epsilon[/tex] where [tex]\epsilon = \frac {1}{100}[/tex]. IS this right? How would you actually estimate the difference?
(e) So [tex]a_n = \frac {10^n}{n!}< \frac {1}{100}[/tex]. How would you solve
for this?
Thanks a lot
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