eljose
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Let,s suppose we have the operator f(q,p) with p and q are quantum operators tehn my question is if we develop f(p,q) into a power series:
[tex]f(q,p)=\sum_0^{\infty}a_n(q)p^{n}[/tex]
my question is if i must symmetrizy the expresion a_n(q)p^n for each member
so:
[tex]a_n(q)p^n\rightarrow[a_n(q),p^n][/tex]
another question let be the integral of the operator x given by:
[tex]\int_0^{\infty}f(X)dx[/tex]
is this justified or it cna not be done?..thanks.
[tex]f(q,p)=\sum_0^{\infty}a_n(q)p^{n}[/tex]
my question is if i must symmetrizy the expresion a_n(q)p^n for each member
so:
[tex]a_n(q)p^n\rightarrow[a_n(q),p^n][/tex]
another question let be the integral of the operator x given by:
[tex]\int_0^{\infty}f(X)dx[/tex]
is this justified or it cna not be done?..thanks.