View Full Version : Precession-Time Paradox
MathematicalPhysicist
Oct8-03, 11:15 AM
has there been a solution to the paradox?
here's explanation to it:
http://www.siriusresearchgroup.com/paradox.htm
http://www.siriusresearchgroup.com/info.htm
http://www.siriusresearchgroup.com/beelzebub.htm
btw i would like to know what ÷ represents in this proof:
http://www.siriusresearchgroup.com/proof.htm
thanks in advance.
selfAdjoint
Oct8-03, 04:38 PM
Looks like it means what it looks like. Division.
MathematicalPhysicist
Oct9-03, 06:16 AM
i didnt know ÷ is division, i know that this "/" is division.
selfAdjoint
Oct9-03, 09:59 AM
Both symbols are used in the US, but the first one (I don't even know how to make it) is mostly used in elementary arithmetic texts.
MathematicalPhysicist
Oct9-03, 11:36 AM
it's a hebrew letter pronounced "kouf", like "k".
my keyboard is hebrew and english that's why i could type the letter.
any thoughts about the paradox?
Jonathan
Oct14-03, 04:11 AM
Weird, I've never hear of this.
selfAdjoint
Oct14-03, 08:32 PM
The first site says
The Earth's axis does not gyrate around the pole of the ecliptic. In the period Tprec the Sun, together with the Earth and its Moon, revolves around a reference star that would play the role of a central sun to our entire solar system
This is bunk, probably from some wing of astrology. The precession of the equinoxes is precisely due to what this text denies, the wobble of the Earth's axis over time. There is no "reference star".
Jonathan
Oct17-03, 03:31 AM
I think the reference star that was spoken of was any very far away star that could serve as a reference point. However I too have skepticism about these claims because the numbers and math introduced are not explained and reminds me of numberology and astrology too.
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