Solving lim x->0 (1-cosx)/x: Are My Steps Right?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit of the expression (1 - cos(x)) / x as x approaches 0. This involves concepts from calculus, particularly limits and trigonometric functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore various algebraic manipulations of the limit expression, questioning the validity of steps taken. Some suggest using L'Hôpital's rule while others point out potential errors in the simplification process. There is also mention of recognizing known limits such as sin(x)/x.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active with participants providing different perspectives on the steps taken. Some guidance has been offered regarding the use of known limits and the continuity of sine and cosine functions. Multiple interpretations of the limit evaluation are being explored, but there is no explicit consensus on the correctness of the original poster's steps.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the indeterminate form encountered in the limit evaluation, and participants are considering the implications of continuity and known limit properties in their reasoning.

gillgill
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Am i doing these right?

lim x->0 (1-cosx) all over x
=(1-cosx/x)(1+cosx/1+cosx)
=(1-cos^2x)/x(1+cosx)
=(sin^2x)/x(1+cosx)
=x(sin^2x)/xx(1+cosx)
=0/2
=0

are my steps right?
 
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Nevermind, that's indeterminate. Your denominator is still 0. You may have to use l'hospital's rule.
 
=x(sin^2x)/xx(1+cosx)
=0/2

That step is not right. The top will be 0*(sin²0) which is 0, the bottom will be 0 * 0 * 2 which is 0, not 2.

What you can do is recognize that:

x(sin²x)/x²(1 + cosx)
= [x/(1 + cosx)][sin²x/x²]
= [x/(1 + cosx)](sinx/x)²

The limit as x -> 0 of (sinx/x) exists, and you should know it, and the limit as x -> 0 of [x/(1 + cosx)] exists, and you should be able to easily compute that, so the limit of the product is the product of the limits. That way, you get (0/2)(1)². Perhaps this is how you got rid of the x² on the bottom, and hence went from

=x(sin^2x)/xx(1+cosx)

to

=0/2

but it's not clear that you did that. At least show your work. Also, make sure that when you write it, don't just drop the "lim x->0" part until you actually compute it.
 
[tex]\frac{1-cos(x)}{x}\frac{1+cos(x)}{1+cos(x)}[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{sin^2(x)}{x(1+cos(x))}[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{sin(x)}{x}\frac{sin(x)}{1+cos(x)}[/tex]

What exactly do you already know and can use?
If you are allowed to use the well known limit: [tex]\frac{sin x}{x}[/tex] goes to 1 and the facts that sine and cosine are continuous, so that the second fraction goes to 0/2= 0, it follows that the limit is 0.
 
I see no reason why the steps are inorect. Gillgill probably multiplied top and bottom by x, in order to write:

[tex]\frac{\sin^2 x}{x(1+cosx)}=\frac{x\sin^2 x}{x^2(1+cosx)}=\left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^2\frac{x}{1+\cos x}[/tex]

so you can use that: [itex]\frac{\sin x}{x}[/itex] goes to one and all three products of limits exist.

[tex]\lim _{x \to 0}\left(\frac{\sin x}{x}\right)^2\frac{x}{1+\cos x}=(1)(1)(0)=0[/tex]

EDIT: It doesn't show in the calculations though, nevermind.
 
Last edited:
An elegant way would have been to use the first 2 terms from cosine's Taylor series around 0...:wink:

Daniel.
 

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