What Is the Probability a Random Point Lands on One Side of a Line in R^2?

  • Context: Graduate 
  • Thread starter Thread starter philosophking
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Probability
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The probability of a random point landing on one side of an infinite line in the Cartesian plane (R^2) is not simply 1/2 due to the complexities of measure theoretic probability. To solve this problem, one must define a legitimate distribution function, as uniform distribution cannot be applied to an infinite plane. The relationship between the line and the chosen distribution function significantly influences the probability outcome. Without these definitions, the problem remains unsolvable.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of measure theoretic probability
  • Familiarity with Cartesian coordinates in R^2
  • Knowledge of probability distributions
  • Concept of infinite sets and their properties
NEXT STEPS
  • Study measure theoretic probability principles
  • Explore different probability distribution functions applicable to R^2
  • Learn about the implications of infinite sets in probability
  • Investigate the relationship between geometric shapes and probability outcomes
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, statisticians, and students studying probability theory, particularly those interested in geometric probability and measure theory.

philosophking
Messages
175
Reaction score
0
Hey guys, I'm pretty sure this problem is from probability, but I have no idea how to approach it.

The other day my friend gave me this problem:

Say you have the cartesian plane (R^2), and you take some infinite line that divides the plane up into two half-planes. Say I now randomly throw a point down on the plane: what is the probability that the point will land on one side of the plane?

My friend said I'd be surprised at the answer because it's not 1/2, but then my question is, what would be the answer? It sounds like it would be something from measure theoretic probability, but I've never studied that (nor basic probability, actually).

The reason I thought to post this was that there was a question similar to this one that was posted in this forum a while back. Would the answer to this problem be zero, because there are infinitely many points?

What kind of assumptions would have to be made to make this problem solvable, if it is not solvable already?

Thanks for the help.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
The basic problem with your example is that throwing a point on the plane cannot be done from a uniform distribution - you can't define one for an infinite plane, or an infinite line in one dimension. Therefore you must define a legitimate distribution function. The probability for each half plane will depend on the relationship between the line and the distribution function.
 
Okay, thanks a lot!
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
3K
  • · Replies 57 ·
2
Replies
57
Views
7K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
4K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 18 ·
Replies
18
Views
4K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
4K