Proving Convergence of an Infinite Series

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the convergence of an infinite series defined by the function f(x) = ∑(sin(nx)/(x+n^4)) for x > 0. Participants are exploring the behavior of this series as x approaches infinity, particularly whether f(x) approaches zero.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of the comparison test and the implications of absolute convergence. Questions arise about how to demonstrate that f(x) approaches zero as x increases, with some participants expressing confusion about the relationship between the series' convergence and its limit behavior.

Discussion Status

There is ongoing exploration of different approaches to the problem, including the application of the comparison test and the integral test. Some participants have offered insights into bounding the series and the implications of uniform convergence, while others express uncertainty about the application of relevant theorems.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the constraints of their coursework and the potential relevance of theorems related to uniformly convergent series. There is an acknowledgment of the complexity of the problem and the varying levels of familiarity with convergence tests among participants.

broegger
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Okay, I have this function defined as an infinite series:

[tex]f(x) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(nx)}{x+n^4}[/tex]​

which is converges uniformly and absolutely for x > 0. I have shown that f is continuous and has a derivative for x > 0. Now I have to show that [tex]f(x) \rightarrow 0[/tex] as [tex]x \rightarrow \infty.[/tex] It's obvious that it is the case, but how do I prove it. I've tried putting 1/x outside the sum, but then I don't know about the remaining part. Any ideas?
 
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set [tex]f_n(x) = \frac{sin(nx)}{x+n^4}[/tex], then [tex]|f_n(x)| \leq \frac{1}{n^4}[/tex] for all x>0
 
Hmm.. How does that show that f(x) -> 0 as x -> infinity?
 
broegger said:
Hmm.. How does that show that f(x) -> 0 as x -> infinity?
by the comparison test
 
lurflurf said:
by the comparison test

Maybe I'm a little slow here, but [tex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac1{n^4}[/tex] does not equal 0, so how come?
 
broegger said:
Maybe I'm a little slow here, but [tex]\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac1{n^4}[/tex] does not equal 0, so how come?
My mistake. Have you any theorems concerning the interchange of limits for uniformly convergent series?
 
No, I can't find any relevant theorems to apply. I'm lost at sea.
 
fourier jr said:
set [tex]f_n(x) = \frac{sin(nx)}{x+n^4}[/tex], then [tex]|f_n(x)| \leq \frac{1}{n^4}[/tex] for all x>0

This series converges absolutely by the p-series test. I don't see why you have to look for any limits or to check it is decreases. If it comverges absolutely, then it converges.

Regards,

Nenad
 
[tex]f(x) = \frac{sin(x)}{x+1} + \sum_{n=2}^{\infty}\frac{\sin(nx)}{x+n^4}[/tex]

This is clearly bounded by:

[tex]\frac{1}{x+1} + \int_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{x+n^4}\,\,dn[/tex]

which can be shown to go to zero.

Carl
 
  • #10
isn't that a much harder way to do it though? & judging by brogger's other posts i would say he's in the standard advanced calculus course where you'd learn the usual tests for convergence. (like comparison)
 
  • #11
It's been a few decades, but I suppose that the integral test is still taught in freshman calculus. The advantage of using the integral test is that in addition to convergence, since the bounding integral goes to zero as x to infinity, you also get that the series goes to zero.

Carl
 

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