What is the significance of the conjugate eigenvalues in a quantum Hamiltonian?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the significance of conjugate eigenvalues in a quantum Hamiltonian, particularly focusing on the implications of a Hamiltonian composed of kinetic and potential energy terms. The original poster explores the relationship between eigenvalues and the nature of the potential, questioning whether the potential must be real based on the properties of eigenvalues.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to prove that if an eigenvalue is complex, its conjugate must also be an eigenvalue, leading to the conclusion that the potential is real. Some participants question the clarity of the original poster's notation and reasoning, particularly regarding the wavefunction's consistency across different lines of reasoning.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants raising questions about the validity of the original poster's proof and exploring the properties of observables in quantum mechanics. There is a lack of consensus on the interpretation of certain steps in the original argument, and additional questions about proving relationships involving the momentum operator are being posed.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating complex notation and assumptions inherent in quantum mechanics, with some questioning the implications of certain mathematical identities and the nature of wavefunctions in relation to the Hamiltonian.

eljose
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Quantum problem...:)

let be the next quantum problem we have a Hamiltonian with a potential V so H=T+V we don,t know if V is real or complex the only thing we now is that if [tex]E_{n}[/tex] is an eigenvalue of the Hamiltonian also its conjugate [tex]E^*_{n}=E_{k}[/tex] will also be an eigenvalue we have necesarily that V is real.. ..my proof is that

[tex]<\phi]p^{2}+V[\phi>=E_{n}[/tex] taking the conjugate:

[tex]<\phi^*]p^{2}+V^{*}[\phi^*>=E^*_{n}=E_{k}[/tex] (2)but E_k is also an energy so we would have the equation:


[tex]<\phi]p^{2}+V[\phi>=E_{k}[/tex]
(3) ow equating down 2 and 3 we would have that

[tex]<\phi^*]p^{2*}+V^{*}[\phi^*>= <\phi]p^{2}+V[\phi>[/tex]

so we would have in the end that [tex]<\phi]V(x)[\phi>=<\phi^*]V^*(x)[\phi^*>[/tex] so the potential would be real...

we have that [tex]<\phi][x>=\phi^*(x)[/tex] and that [tex]<x][\phi>=\phi(x)[/tex] we would also have that [tex]\phi^*(x,E_{n})=\phi^(x,E^*_{n})=\phi(x,E_{k})[/tex]

Another question is suppsed that p^2*=p^2 and that [tex]<p\phi][p\phi>=<\phi]p^{2}[\phi>[/tex]
 
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Are you asking if your work is right? If so, I got lost at the third line. Is that a new wavefunction, or is it the same as the one from line 1? Your notation suggests it's the same, which doesn't follow from your work. And it's easy to prove p^2 is hermitian if p is.
 
Another question how i would prove that [tex]<\phi|p^{2}|\phi>=<p\phi|p\phi>[/tex] ?..we know p is an observable so p=p+...
 
eljose said:
Another question how i would prove that [tex]<\phi|p^{2}|\phi>=<p\phi|p\phi>[/tex] ?..we know p is an observable so p=p+...

[tex]<\phi|a\phi>=<a*\phi|\phi>[/tex] and since p*=p [tex]<\phi|p^{2}|\phi>=<p\phi|p\phi>[/tex]
 
another question,let,s suppose we have the identity:

[tex]\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dx(|\phi_{n}(x)|^{2}+|\phi_{k}(x)|^{2})f(x)=0[/tex]

valid for all the k and n eigenfunctions of a given Hamiltonian, then necessarily we must have that f=0
 
That doesn't necessarily have to be so. You can construct a hamiltonian for which all wavefunctions are zero outside an interval (i.e. infinite sqaure well) and have f(x) take nonzero values outside that interval.
 

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